| Post Name | Clinical Audiometrician Grade II (NCA- SC) - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 016/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 337/2022 |
| Date of Test | 22 February 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
According to inverse square law, the intensity reduces by _________ factor when the distance squares.
Answer
A. 1
2
_______ frequency of a body or medium is referred to as the frequency at which it vibrates most easily.
Answer
D. Resonant frequency
3
Choose the right one among the statements given below that explain the given scenario. You and your friend are scuba diving in the ocean. Although your friend is just a few feet beneath the surface, already underwater, and you attempt to communicate by yelling, there is no response from him.
Answer
B. The voice encounters the impedance oļ¬ered by the water which is few thousand times greater than that of air
4
0 dB SPL corresponds to ________.
Answer
A. 20 Pa
5
According to the Auditory Behaviour Index given by Northern and Downs (1991), a one month-old baby responds to moderate level (40-60 dB HL) speech sound by ________.
Answer
D. All the above
6
The function of middle ear in human auditory system is ______.
Answer
D. All the above
7
In adult, the resonant frequency of the ear canal and of the concha is _______ and _______ respectively.
Answer
A. 2500 Hz and 5000 Hz
8
The area of stapes foot plate is way smaller the eļ¬ective are of the tympanic membrane. This diļ¬erence in conductive mechanism contributes to a gain of ________ times in middle ear transformed action.
Answer
C. 17
9
The function of labyrinth includes _______.
Answer
A. Mechano-sensory transduction
10
Which among the following statement is correct ?
Answer
C. The auditory neurons innervate the inner hair cells through habenula perforata
11
I. The outer hair cells generate Oto-acoustic emission. II. The outer hair cells have ability to respond to low intensity sounds.
Answer
C. Both the statements are correct
12
Ear canal collapse during pure-tone audiometry can lead to erroneous results. This collapse can be avoided through the use of _________.
Answer
D. Insert earphones
13
Myringitis is the inļ¬ammation of _________.
Answer
B. Tympanic membrane
14
Average air conduction threshold of 60dB and an air bone gap of 30 dB indicates ________.
Answer
C. Mixed Hearing loss
15
_______ does not results in conductive hearing loss.
Answer
C. Microtia
16
The case history portion of the ASHA (1997) hearing disorders screening protocol for adults involves asking whether the individual has any of the following problems including ______.
Answer
D. All of the above
17
High-risk register doesn't include which of the following ?
Answer
D. OAE report
18
Which of the following physiologic tests are used for new born hearing screening ?
Answer
A. TEOAE
19
In immittance screening, which of the following criteria refers to fail ?
Answer
B. Peak-compensated static acoustic admittance that is < 0.2 mmho
20
Shadow curve is an audiogram is caused by ________.
Answer
D. Cross hearing
21
Collapsable ear canal in results in ________ while using supra-aural headphones.
Answer
A. False Air-Bone Gap (ABG)
22
TDH 49 is a _________ headphone.
Answer
A. Supra aural headphone
23
The loudspeaker output for 0 dB HL in the sound ļ¬eld, when listening with both ears, should be __________ for speech.
Answer
A. 14.5 dB SPL
24
The unit of audiometric intensity is _______.
Answer
B. dB HL
25
According to JCIH, the universal newborn hearing screening should follow identiļ¬cation, diagnosis and intervention should be done at ________, ________ and _______ months respectively.
Answer
A. 1, 3 and 6
26
Phonological processes refers to
Answer
A. The adjustments made to the production of speech sounds during speech development
27
The cranial nerve responsible for jaw movements is
Answer
D. Trigeminal nerve
28
A blend of two vowels within the same syllable is
Answer
C. Diphthong
29
By 4-6 months of age the speech development of a child involves
Answer
C. Producing more lip or labial sounds
30
Which of the following is not a language disorder ?
Answer
B. Cerebral Palsy
31
Study of speech sounds is known as
Answer
B. Phonology
32
The extent to which an assessment test measures what it is supposed to measure is referred as
Answer
D. Validity
33
Which of the following is true in case of stuttering ?
Answer
A. Twins have a higher prevalence of stuttering
34
The Broca's area is situated in the
Answer
D. Frontal lobe
35
Which of the following is not true in autism ?
Answer
D. No impairment in the ability to initiate conversation
36
Which of the following is an H-shaped laryngeal cartilage when viewed laterally ?
Answer
B. Thyroid
37
Which of the following is not a symptom of resonance disorder ?
Answer
B. Dysļ¬uency
38
ALD is a test materials which stands for
Answer
C. Assessment of Language Development
39
The peripheral nervous system consists of the following.
Answer
C. Nerves and ganglia
40
The way in which the air stream is modiļ¬ed due to the interaction of articulations is referred as
Answer
B. Manner of articulation
41
The psychological perception of frequency is
Answer
D. Pitch
42
One of the standardized assessment tool used to assess Autism is
Answer
C. CARS
43
GERD, which can cause a voice problem, refers to
Answer
A. Gastroesophageal reļ¬ux disease
44
Which of the following is not an acoustic correlate of voice ?
Answer
B. Airļ¬ow rate
45
The type of cerebral palsy having the most common symptom of impairment in coordination and balance is
Answer
C. Ataxic cerebral palsy
46
False positive in screening assessment means
Answer
A. Fail the screening but do not have a problem
47
Mutational falsetto is otherwise known as
Answer
D. Puberphonia
48
The type of assessment wherein the goal is to determine an individual's level of achievement or skill in a particular area of communication is
Answer
C. Criterion-referenced assessment
49
When there is motor weakness of only the legs, it is referred as
Answer
A. Paraplegia
50
The ability of the brain to reorganize and modify functions and adapt to internal and external changes refers to
Answer
B. Plasticity
51
All are parts of a conventional hearing aid except
Answer
C. Speech processor
52
Indication for Bone Anchored Hearing Aid (BAHA) are all except
Answer
C. SNHL
53
Which of this is not a cause of hyponasality ?
Answer
B. Velopharyngeal insuļ¬ciency
54
Conventional hearing aid can be advised in all except
Answer
B. Presence of recruitment
55
Misarticulation of Sibilants is called as
Answer
D. Lisping
56
Early identiļ¬cation of hearing loss is by all except
Answer
D. Tone decay test
57
All are true of dysphonia plica ventricularis except
Answer
B. Voice is produced by true vocal folds
58
Puberphonia-mark the wrong statement
Answer
D. Occurs in females
59
Best treatment for adductor dysphonia
Answer
B. Voice therapy + Botulinum toxin injection
60
In functional Aphonia-select the wrong statement
Answer
C. Poor cough reļ¬ex
61
Stuttering can be prevented by all except
Answer
A. Over reacting in early stages of speech development
62
Conventional Hearing Aid-select false statement
Answer
C. Used in discharging ears
63
Candidacy proļ¬le for cochlear implants include all except
Answer
B. Inadequate cognitive function
64
Reading an unknown test is _______ in cluttering than in stuttering.
Answer
B. Better
65
Moderate hearing impairment means hearing loss in better ear is
Answer
B. 41-60 dB
66
The ear moulds impression made from open jaw position to closed jaw position has
Answer
C. Good retention and good acoustic sealing
67
FAPI stands for
Answer
B. Functional Auditory Performance Indicators
68
The Midvas strategy proposed by Van Riper is for
Answer
D. Stuttering
69
Which is not an ALD (Assistive Listening Devices) ?
Answer
A. Telecoil system
70
One approach which does not ļ¬t into motor based or linguistically based strategies in order to treat speech sound disorders
Answer
A. Core vocabulary therapy
71
S/Z ratio is an indirect index of
Answer
B. Laryngeal Airļ¬ow
72
A group of phonemes in which each looks alike when spoken are
Answer
B. Visemes
73
Cavet is a test used to assess
Answer
A. Speech reading ability in children
74
Name the Kerala Government's free Cochlear implant scheme for hearing impaired children
Answer
D. Sruthitharangam
75
What is IEP ?
Answer
A. Individualised Educational Program
76
According to the RPWD Act of 2016, who is considered as deaf ?
Answer
A. 70 dB hearing loss in both ears
77
________ stated "Disability is an umbrella term, covering impairments, activity limitations, and participation restrictions".
Answer
D. World Health Organisation
78
Which disability is not included under the National Trust Act (1999) deļ¬nition ?
Answer
B. Muscular Dystrophy
79
SIPDA scheme is implemented by
Answer
D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
80
A medical or hereditary disorder known as dwarļ¬sm causes an adult to be _____ cm or less in height.
Answer
B. 147
81
The age limit for cochlear implantation under ADIP scheme is _________ in case of prelingual hearing loss.
Answer
A. Between 1 year to 5 years
82
_________ is the third level in auditory training.
Answer
C. Discrimination
83
There are _______ paired and ________ unpaired cartilages in larynx.
Answer
A. 3, 3
84
_______ is a standardised test material to assess language in children.
Answer
C. REELS
85
Lateral sulcus in brain called
Answer
D. Sylvian Fissure
86
An electronic device used for measurement of hearing threshold
Answer
B. Audiometer
87
Which of the following statements are correct about the Unique ID for Persons with Disabilities Project ? 1. The Project aims to create a National Database for the Persons with disabilities. 2. It aims to issue a UDID, that is, a Unique Disability Identity Card to each person with disabilities. 3. The persons with disabilities included in the project are based on RPWD Act, 2016.
Answer
D. All of the above
88
Which model of Disability viewed Disability as a deļ¬ciency residing in a person's body and/or mind ?
Answer
C. Medical model
89
Which of the following statements are incorrect about Centrally Sponsored Schemes in India ? 1. Centrally Sponsored Schemes are funded directly by the central ministries/departments and implemented by the central government directly. 2. They mainly oļ¬er assistance on subjects in the union list. 3. These schemes are 100% funded by the Central Government.
Answer
D. All of the above
90
RBSK initiative of the government aims to
Answer
B. Aiming at early identiļ¬cation and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years to cover 4'D's
91
Counselling is a profession aims at
Answer
A. Promote personal growth and productivity
92
_______ play an important role in society as they provide social support, a sense of belongingness and opportunities for collaboration, and cooperation.
Answer
C. Communities
93
Which of these aren't mentioned in the PWD Act, 1995 ?
Answer
A. Compulsory education
94
Which of the following Scheme implemented by the Government of Kerala for free cochlear implant for children with Hearing Loss ?
Answer
B. Sruthitharangam
95
International disability day celebrated on _______
Answer
B. December 3rd
96
Which of the following health insurance schemes cover for Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Global Developmental Delay, and Multiple Disabilities ?
Answer
C. Niramaya
97
Identify correct statement 1. Hearing aids are implantable device 2. Hearing aids are electronic device 3. Hearing aids are ampliļ¬cation device
Answer
B. 2 and 3
98
Frequency range tested while doing air conduction testing in Pure Tone Audiometry.
Answer
A. 250 Hz to 8000 Hz
99
Which of the following best describes teamwork ?
Answer
B. Collaboration and cooperation among team members to achieve a shared objective
100
What is the best quality of a good counsellor ?
Answer
A. Good listener
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.