| Post Name | Clinical Psychologist, Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 135/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 011/2025 |
| Date of Test | 13 November 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is best suitable for Maries Jahoda's (1958) criteria for ideal mental health?
Answer
B. Self-actualisation, autonomy, environmental mastery
2
According to Salkovskis' (1985) cognitive behavioural model of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder, which of the following best explains the obsessive compulsive symptoms?
Answer
C. Misinterpretation of intrusive thoughts as personally signiļ¬cant and threatening
3
Which of the following statements about Expressed Emotion (EE) is True?
Answer
B. High EE predicts a higher risk of relapse in schizophrenia and other severe mental illness
4
According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, which of the following best explains the role of defence mechanisms in personality functioning?
Answer
B. They are unconscious processes that reduce anxiety by distorting reality
5
Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by:
Answer
B. Persistent, excessive worry about multiple domains for ā„6 months
6
According to the Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis, aggression is most likely to occur when:
Answer
C. A person experiences a blocked goal or thwarted desire
7
In Lazarus' stress model, primary appraisal refers to:
Answer
B. Assessing whether an event is threatening, challenging, or benign
8
According to Durkheim's sociological theory - egoistic suicide occurs when:
Answer
B. A person experiences weak social integration and feels disconnected from society
9
Sexual urges, fantasies and behaviour involving an inanimate object, such as women's undergarments, is known as:
Answer
B. Fetishism
10
Which among the following is best describes the primary goal and Motivation Enhancement Therapy?
Answer
B. To enhance intrinsic motivation for behaviour change
11
What is Psychopathology?
Answer
B. The scientiļ¬c study of psychological disorders
12
What is the key assumption of the classical categorical approach to classiļ¬cation in psychopathology?
Answer
B. Each disorder has a distinct set of symptoms and a single cause
13
Why might a clinician use a dimensional approach to classiļ¬cation?
Answer
B. To capture the complexity of a patient's symtoms
14
What approach is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, ļ¬fth edition (DSM-5), based on?
Answer
C. Prototypical approach
15
What are the main clinical features of dementia?
Answer
D. All of the above
16
What is a characteristic feature of alcoholic hallucinosis?
Answer
C. Hallucination (usually auditory) in clear consciousness
17
What type of schizophrenia is characterised by a prominent motor symptom, such as immobility, rigidity or excessive and purposeless movement?
Answer
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
18
What is observed in patients with severe depression and suicidal intent/attempt?
Answer
B. Decreased serotonergic function
19
What is the primary aim of Cognitive Behaviour Therapy (CBT) in treating depression?
Answer
B. To correct depressive negative cognitions and replace them with new responses
20
What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Answer
C. 6 months
21
What is the characteristic feature of the onset of a panic attack?
Answer
B. Sudden onset, often "out-of-the-blue"
22
What is a key characteristic of an obsession?
Answer
C. It is recognised as irrational and absurd
23
What is the primary purpose of a compulsion in relation to an obsession?
Answer
B. To neutralise or prevent distress or fear
24
What is the key diļ¬erence between an obsession and a delusion?
Answer
B. An obsession is recognised as one's own idea, but is ego-alien
25
According to ICD-10, what are the three clinical subtypes of OCD?
Answer
A. Predominantly obsessive thought, predominantly compulsive acts and mixed
26
What is important to rule out when diagnosing Somatoform Disorders?
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
27
According to ICD-10, what are the two sub types of Emotionally Unstable Personality Disorder?
Answer
C. Impulsive type and borderline type
28
What is a key characteristic of Emotionally Unstable Personality Disorder?
Answer
C. Marked tendency to act impulsively without consideration of consequences
29
According to ICD-10, what are the four subtypes of Conduct Disorder?
Answer
B. Conduct disorder conļ¬ned to the family context, unsocialised, socialised and oppositional deļ¬ant
30
What is a key characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa?
Answer
B. Intense fear of becoming obese
31
Neurological diseases that give rise to amnestic state include all of the following except?
Answer
D. Guillain-Barre syndrome
32
The Corticobulbar tracts projects to motor nuclei of the following cranial nerves except?
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
The following are imaging modality of choice in patients with acute stroke except:
Answer
C. PET scan
34
Activating procedures generally undertaken while doing EEG are the following Except:
Answer
A. Make the patient awake
35
The preganglionic neurons of parasympathetic nervous system, leave CNS through the following cranial nerves Except:
Answer
C. 2nd Cranial nerve
36
Cortical sensory loss includes all of the following except:
Answer
D. Agraphia
37
Which one of the following statements is false about spinal cord?
Answer
D. The white matter contains only descending motor pathways
38
Which one of the following statements is false about CSF examination?
Answer
D. It is not a mandatory investigation in the evaluation of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
39
Nucleus Basalis of Meynert of basal fore brain secretes the following neurotransmitter?
Answer
B. Acetylcholine
40
Which is the output neurotransmitter of Basal ganglia to thalamus and brain stem for control of motor function?
Answer
A. GABA
41
Which of the following is not the characteristics of Korsakoļ¬'s amnesic syndrome?
Answer
A. Inadequate immediate memory as tested by repetition
42
Which of the following is not the indices of wakefulness evaluated in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
Answer
D. Orientation
43
Match the following. Indicate your answer with the help of the given codes: List I List II 1. Motor aphasia (i) Diļ¬cult to carry out an action on verbal command but may do so automatically 2. Ideomotor apraxia (ii) Diļ¬culty in executing correct sequence of steps which makes up a complex act though individual acts may be carried out successfully 3. Ideational apraxia (iii) Unable to put together parts to make a whole 4. Constructional apraxia (iv) Loss of Kinesthetic memory patterns necessary for the performance of the skilled act Choose the answer from the following options:
Answer
D. (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iii)
44
Arrange the process of neuropsychological rehabilitation in the correct order: Steps: 1. Assessment of the environment 2. Assessment of resources 3. Development of an ideal plan 4. Ongoing assessment 5. Assessment of the child 6. Predictions about short and long-term outcomes 7. Development of a realistic intervention plan Codes:
Answer
Question Cancelled
45
__________ attempts to understand how the brain makes decisions by combining neuroscience, cognitive and social psychology and behavioral economics and increasingly by emphasizing noninvasive imaging studies.
Answer
B. Neuroeconomics
46
Rey Auditory Verbal Learning Test is used for assessing _________.
Answer
A. Memory Functions
47
Assertion (A) : Electrical ļ¬uctuations in the brain are small, usually much less than a milli volt, but when ampliļ¬ed, they can be displayed on a polygraph. Reason (R) : Single-cell recording will always be limited to recordings from relatively small numbers of neurons. Codes:
Answer
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
48
Which of the following statements are true? In Alzheimer's disease: 1) Neuritic Plaques are generally considered nonspeciļ¬c phenomena in that they can be found in non-Alzheimer patients and in dementia caused by other known events. 2) The anterior half of the hippocampus is aļ¬ected more severely than the posterior half 3) Dendrites in brains with Alzheimer's disease show the age-related growth 4) The cortex shrinks or atrophies, losing as much as one-third of its volume as the disease progresses Codes:
Answer
D. (1) and (4)
49
Which of the following are the characteristics of deep dyslexia? 1) Semantic errors 2) Impaired ability to read pseudowords and non-words 3) Visual errors 4) Function words are harder to read aloud than content words 5) Verbs are more diļ¬cult to read aloud than are adjectives 6) Inability to recognized words on the basis of their physical appearance Codes:
Answer
C. 1, 3, 4, 5
50
Which of the following statements are true? 1) Damage to the ļ¬bres crossing the optic chiasm results in cortical blindness 2) Thalamus is necessary for the conscious experience of visual stimuli 3) Individuals develop 'blind spots', which result from isolated lesions of the primary visual cortex 4) A complete homonymous hemianopia can result from a lesion to one optic tract Code:
Answer
D. (3) and (4)
51
Identify the emotional indicators associated with the ļ¬ne line in the Bender Gestalt test:
Answer
C. Timidity, shyness and withdrawal
52
What is the ability to select the appropriate response under highly speeded conditions, identiļ¬ed in complex coordination tests in which each signal pattern requires a diļ¬erent control and direction of movement?
Answer
B. Response Orientation
53
Match the following. Indicate your answer with the the help of the given codes. List I List II 1. Robert Woodworth Develops the Personal Data Sheet, the ļ¬rst Personality test 2. Edgar Doll Develops the Q-technique for studying the self-concept and other variables 3. Stephenson Distinguishes between mental illness and mental retardation 4. Jean Esquirol Publishes the Vineland Social Maturity Scale for assessment of adaptive behaviour in those with mental retardation Codes:
Answer
B. (1)-(i), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iii)
54
In which of the following, WISC-IV and WAIS-IV does not yield composite or index scores:
Answer
D. Digit span
55
Detroit Tests of Learning Aptitude-4 is to assess:
Answer
C. Overall mental ability
56
Match the following. Indicate your answer with the help of the given codes: List I List II 1. Psychotic i. Somewhat adaptive mechanisms; includes isolation of aļ¬ect and intellectualization 2. Neurotic ii. Splitting the image of others into good and bad; includes splitting and schizoid fantasy 3. Obsessive iii. Gross denial of external reality such as frank delusions; includes denial and distortion 4. Borderline iv. Mechanisms that involve minor reality distortion, includes repression and displacement
Answer
C. (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii)
57
Which of the following are the responses to keep the interaction following? 1. Transitional Phrase 2. Verbatim playback 3. Probing statements 4. Paraphrasing and restatement 5. Summarizing 6. Clariļ¬cation response Codes:
Answer
C. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
58
Which of the following are true regarding aptitude tests? 1. Evaluate the eļ¬ects of an unknown, uncontrolled set of experiences 2. Evaluate the potential to proļ¬t from a course of training 3. Rely heavily on content validation procedures 4. Rely heavily on predictive criterion validation procedures 5. Evaluate the product of a course of training Codes:
Answer
A. 1, 2, 4
59
Which of the following are the characteristics of people with internalized coping style? 1) Intellectualization 2) Unsocialized aggression 3) Constricted or overcontrolled emotions 4) Minimizing diļ¬culties 5) Paranoia 6) Somatization with symptoms related to the autonomic nervous system Codes :
Answer
B. 1, 3, 4, 6
60
Comprehension subtest of WAIS-IV include which of the following abilities? 1) Rough measure of the subject's optimal intellectual eļ¬ciency 2) Knowledge of conventional standards of behavior and social norms 3) Ability to evaluate post experience, that is, proper selection, organization and emphasis of facts and relationships. 4) Social maturity, social judgement, common sense or judgement in practical social situations. 5) Range of ideas, experiences or interests that a subject has acquired. 6) Demonstration of practical knowledge Code:
Answer
D. 2, 3, 4, 6
61
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : A trait has more nominal existence. Reason (R) : The existence of a trait may be established empirically or at least statistically. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
62
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one is labelled as reason (R): Assertion (A): Compared to proactive aggression, reactivity aggressive children show more diļ¬culty in interpersonal interaction. Reason (R) : Bullying children tend to the high on both aspects of aggressive, but their victims are marked by proactive aggression only. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer
C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
63
Given below are two statements: Statement (I) : Healthy people live simultaneously in Umwelt, Mitwelt and Eigenwelt. Statement (II) : Rollo may used the term "intentionality" to bridge the gap between subject and object. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer
A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct
64
Given below are two statements: Statement (I) : The agreeableness Scale distinguishes soft-hearted people from ruthless ones. Statement (II) Conscientiousness discusses the order, ambitious and achievement focused nature. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer
A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct
65
Which of the following is not true considering the Rogers theory of therapeutic change?
Answer
B. Become more anxious
66
Which of the theory discusses the distinction between conscious (control) and unconscious (automatic) processing?
Answer
A. Psychodynamic theories
67
Match List-I and List-II: List I List II a. Id i. reality principle b. Guilt ridden ii. primitive and chaotic c. Super Ego iii. Dominated by superego d. Ego iv. Conscience and Ego ideal
Answer
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)
68
Match List I with List II List I List II a. Cardinal Disposition (i) Peculiarly mine b. Moudsley Personality Inventory (ii) Master system of motivation c. Propriate Functional autonomy (iii) Eysenck d. Proprium (iv) Eminent Characteristics Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Answer
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
69
Which of the following structure of personality possess 'secondary process thought"?
Answer
B. Ego
70
'Q-sort technique' a method used by Carl rogers in various researches can be best described as:
Answer
B. A self-report technique for assessing aspects of the self-concept
71
When setting goals in psychotherapy, which of the following approaches is generally considered most eļ¬ective?
Answer
C. The therapist and client collaboratively
72
Match the following concepts and their descriptions: i. Goal consensus a. Cultivating a therapeutic relationship characterised by authenticity and seeing each other realistically ii. Real relationship b. An eļ¬ective working relationship with the patient(s)/client(s), characterised by the quality and depth of the connection. iii. Alliance c. Working together with your patient/client on the treatment process to ensure you both share a common understanding and approach. iv. Collaboration d. Facilitating mutual understanding and alignment on the objectives and expectations of therapy
Answer
A. (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
73
In therapeutic literature, withdrawal and confrontation are types of which of the following?
Answer
B. Alliance ruptures
74
Which of the following principles of Cognitive Behaviour Therapy (CBT) is false?
Answer
D. CBT emphasises the present, relapse prevention is not a key goal
75
Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the technique of 'Circular Questioning' in family therapy?
Answer
C. To uncover the inter connectedness of family members perceptions and behaviours by exploring relational dynamics
76
According to the Mental Healthcare Act of 2017, which of the following is Not true for admission of a minor to inpatient care?
Answer
D. It requires for the concerned Mental Health Review Board to be informed within 96 hours of admission
77
Which Motivational interviewing skill does the following statement best exemplify? "As you talk about wanting to quit smoking, I hear that you're worried about the stress it might cause, but I also sense that you're really committed to being healthier for your family".
Answer
B. Reļ¬ective listening
78
When a person who uses substances is in the precontemplation phase of change (i.e., not actively considering change), Which of the following is most likely to be helpful?
Answer
C. Rapport building and psycho-education
79
If a patient/client has come to you for help with depression and you suspect they may experience suicidal ideation, what should you do?
Answer
A. Inquire directly, about suicidal thoughts
80
What reforms the basis for severity and disability calculation for intellectual disability under the rights of Persons with Disability Act 2016?
Answer
B. Adaptive functioning
81
From a psychoeducation perspective, which of the following statements about Bipolar Disorder best captures its nature?
Answer
C. That it is chronic and episodic
82
Is it ethically acceptable for therapists to solicit testimonials from current therapy clients/patients, according to the APA code of Ethics?
Answer
C. No
83
Which of the following is not principle of trauma-informed care?
Answer
D. Re-telling and reintegration of the trauma narrative
84
The American psychological Association (APA)'s Division 12 (Society of Clinical Psychology) publishes lists of empirically supported treatment for speciļ¬c disorders. Which of the following is considered to be an empirically supported treatment for schizophrenia with strong research support?
Answer
D. All of the above
85
In which cases, if any, may it be acceptable for a therapist to provide services outside the boundaries of their competence, according to the APA Code of Ethics?
Answer
C. In emergencies, given there are no alternatives for suitable referrals
86
In Dielectrical Behaviour Therapy (DBT), distraction and radical acceptance are part of which type of skills?
Answer
B. Distress tolerance skills
87
A therapist who lets the child direct the activities in a play therapy session is best aligned with which of the following approaches?
Answer
A. Non-directive play therapy
88
How frequently does registration with the Rehabilitation council of India need to be renewed for Clinical Psychologists?
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
The parents of a child diagnosed with ADHD are attending a psychoeducation session. concerned about the child's academic diļ¬culties and social challenges. The therapist's most eļ¬ective approach should include:
Answer
C. Educating the parents about ADHD and the child's speciļ¬c strengths and weaknesses, tailoring strategies for their individual needs
90
The nature of mental health services required in the aftermath of a disaster extends to which of the following?
Answer
D. Psychosocial support and specialised and non-specialised mental health support
91
According to C.J. Jung's theory, the animal instincts that the humans inherited in their evolution from lower forms of life responsible for the appearance in consciousness and behavior of unpleasant and socially reprehensible thoughts, feelings and actions is best described by the archetype/archetypes:
Answer
C. Shadow
92
Arnold believes that there is heaven for virtuous people and a hell for sinners and his behaviors and conduct revolves around this thought process. This idea is cardinal to
Answer
A. Fictional Finalism
93
Compliance, withdrawal and aggression are the three orientations which are the basis of inner conļ¬ict, as proposed by ____________.
Answer
D. Karen Horney
94
Match the following names to their contributing areas : 1. Gordon Allport (i) Typological approach to temperament 2. Hans Eysenck (ii) Six faces for Conscientiousness 3. Costa and Mc. Crae (iii) Interpersonal circumplex model 4. Jerry Wiggins (iv) The speciļ¬cation equation and dynamic lattice 5. Raymond Cattell (v) The personal dispositions Options
Answer
B. 1-(v), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii), 5-(iv)
95
Among the major source of data about personality, the data derived from actual records of the person's behavior in society is addressed by Raymond Cattell as:
Answer
C. L-data
96
According to B.F. Skinner Extinction process is slowest in ___________ schedule of reinforcement.
Answer
D. Variable ratio
97
Choose the correct option matching the explanatory statements with the corresponding corollaries that George Kelly proposed: 1. A person successfully employs a variety of construction subsystems that are inferentially incompatible with each other. 2. Persons diļ¬er from each other in their construction of events. 3. The variations in a person's construction system are limited by the permeability of the construct within whose range of convenience the variant lie. 4. A person's construction system varies as he or she successfully construes the replication of the events. 5. A person anticipates events by construing their replications. (A) Experience corollary (B) Modulation corollary (C) Fragmentation corollary (D) Construction corollary (E) Individuality corollary
Answer
A. 1-(C), 2-(E), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(D)
98
Carl Roger's fully functioning individual has the following characteristics except:
Answer
B. Increasingly self-conscious
99
In Patanjali's Yoga-sutra, eightfold path for attainment of Brahman has been mentioned. Among the eight paths mentioned, the path for concentration or single-mindedness is called as ____________.
Answer
C. Dharana
100
According to Charaka Samhita, there are seven Sattvika type of mind. Which among the following is not belonging to the Sattvika type?
Answer
D. Sakuna
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