| Post Name | Common Preliminary Exam 2024(Degree Level-Stage II) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 047/2024 |
| Category Code | 433/2023, 434/2023, 527/2022 |
| Date of Test | 25 May 2024 |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
RRsm]q]p 2) CÍ| 3) CNyLSp¤ 4) pORReãcV SðãVyV
Answer
D. Only (3 and 4)
2
Match the following :
1. Marutham
2. Palai
Answer
B. Salt manufacturing
3
mere Political Swaraj would mean ‘English rule without the Englishmen’. Who argued
this ?
Answer
B. Gandhi
4
The dutch Captain who entered into the trade agreement with the Zamorin in1604
was
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Which of the following organizations are banned during the Emergency period ?
1. Jamaat-i-lslami 2) RSS
3. Anand Marg 4) Maoist CP (ML)
Answer
D. All of the above (1, 2, 3 and 4)
6
Who among the following was hanged on 23 march,1931 in the lahore Conspiracy
Case ?
Answer
B. Rajguru
7
"CÍ| YLÌ]¨O SwxU' IÐ kOñWU IuOf]pfV BqLeV ?
Answer
B. qLo\NÎ YOz
8
താഴെ കൊടുത്തിരിക്കുന്ന പ്രസ്താവനകളില് ശരിയല്ലാത്തതേത് ? 1) ഫ്രഞ്ച് വിപ്ലവുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ടതായിരുന്നു രേയന് ഓഫ് ടെറര്. 2) ബ്ലഡി സണ്ഡേ അമേരിക്കന് വിപ്ലവവുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ടിരിക്കുന്നു. 3) 1688-ല് ഇംഗ്ലണ്ടില് മഹത്തായ വിപ്ലവം നടന്നു.
Answer
B. Only (2 and 4)
9
Who is the Chief minister of Chhattisgarh ?
Answer
C. Vishnu deo Sai
10
Among the following which country/countries voted in favour of a resolution in
the UN General Assembly that demanded an immediate ceasefire in the recent
Israel-Hamaz Conflict ?
1. Liberia 2) India 3) Israel 4) United States
Answer
Question Cancelled
11
Which of the following regions in India have the highest percentage of forests ?
Answer
D. The Peninsular Plateau and Hills
12
Read the following statements carefully.
i) Fold mountains are formed due to folding of sedimentary rocks.
ii) The Urals and the Appalachians are examples of old fold mountains.
iii) The Andes and the Himalayas are examples of young fold mountains.
Which of these are true ?
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
13
Examine the following statements.
i) The day on which the earth is at perihelion occurs between the winter solstice and
the vernal equinox of the Northern hemisphere.
ii) The sun is the farthest from the earth on or around July 4th.
iii) The seasonal change from summer to winter is due to the inclination of the earth's
rotational axis to the orbital plane.
Which of these are true ?
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
14
The Pampadum Shola National Park is located in which district ?
Answer
B. Idukki
15
The NASA launched a satellite named PACE on February 8, 2024 to study about
microscopic life in the oceans and microscopic particles in the atmosphere.
What does the acronym PACE stand for ?
Answer
A. Plankton, Aerosol, Cloud, ocean Ecosystem
16
Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect about GST ?
i) The GST Council comprises the Prime minister and Chief ministers of all States.
ii) The Kelkar Task Force on Indirect Taxes first proposed the idea of a nationwide GST
in India.
iii) The GST Council is Chaired by the Prime minister of India.
Answer
B. Only (i and iii)
17
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the monetary Policy of RBI ?
i) RBI shall publish the monetary Policy Report (mPR) once in every six months.
ii) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is the ex officio Chairperson of
the monetary Policy Committee (mPC).
iii) The mPC consists of seven members.
Answer
A. Only (i and ii)
18
KLSŸLoLã]WV l]y]¨¤ Rðm]RRsSyuõV IÐL¤
Answer
A. vqOoLj¾]R£ j]sàV v|f|LyU vqOSÒL¥ j]WOf]¨OU YvR½£V NaL¢ó¡
SkpVRo£Vy]jOU DºLWOÐ oLãU
19
According to the System of National Income Accounting, which of the following
statement/s is/are correct ?
i) Gross National Income = GdP + primary income receivable from the rest of the world
(row) – primary income payable to the rest of the world.
ii) Gross National disposable Income = Gross National Income + Current transfers
receivable – Current transfers payable.
iii) Gross National disposable Income can be divided into Gross Savings and Final
Consumption.
Answer
D. All (i, ii and iii)
20
As per the revised estimates, the fiscal deficit of the Union Government for the
financial year 2023-24 is
Answer
C. 5.8%
21
Which among the following provision of the Indian Constitution was given effect from
November 26,1949 ?
Answer
C. Citizenship
22
Which among the following fundamental right is available to foreigners ?
Answer
A. Article
23
When was the second proclamation of emergency was made in India under Article 352 ?
Answer
B. 1971
24
Which among the following items are is in the concurrent list of seventh schedule ?
Answer
D. Social security and social Insurance
25
When India celebrated its first Republic Day who was the Chief Guest of Republic
day parade ?
Answer
C. Indonesian President Sukarno
26
"C&NWLÍ]' IÐ khU __________ IÐfOoLp] mÌRÕŸ]q]¨OÐO.
Answer
B. Syvj°tORa CsSNûLe]WV Rcs]vr]
27
Whom among the following is a member of the Selection Committee for the Chief
Information Commissioner of India ?
Answer
C. leader of opposition in lok Sabha
28
Under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 who among the following is the chair person
of Central Consumer Protection Council ?
Answer
C. minister in charge of the consumer affairs in the Central Government
29
Which among the following statement is not true regarding State and Central Public
Service Commission ?
Answer
D. The members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the state
legislature.
30
When was the last Census conducted in India ?
Answer
B. 2011
31
Which Indian State did Prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru describe as the ‘Jewel of India’ ?
Answer
D. manipur
32
‘^pV ^vL¢ ^pV W]yL¢’ BqORa oONhLvLW|oLp]qOÐO ?
Answer
C. sL¤ mzhP¡ wLNñ]
33
According to N.V. Krishna Warrier, what is the Indian literary name for Nineveh in Assyria ?
Answer
B. Shonithapuram
34
Who won the Jnanpith Award in 1995 ?
Answer
B. m. T. Vasudevan Nair
35
Who is the author of Jnanappana ?
Answer
D. Poonthanam Namboothiri
36
Which State is known for the traditional folk dance ‘Ghoomar’ ?
Answer
B. Rajasthan
37
When was the ‘Children’s Film Society of India’ established ?
Answer
D. 11 may 1955
38
Which king issued the Temple Entry Proclamation ?
Answer
A. Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma
39
Where will the Winter Olympics be held in 2026 ?
Answer
C. milan and Cortina d’Ampezzo
40
Which literary work contains the following lines ?
“Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high;
Where knowledge is free;
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
by narrow domestic walls;
Where words come out from the depth of truth;
Where tireless striving stretches its arms toward perfection”
Answer
C. Gitanjali
41
Which of the following is an input device ?
Answer
D. Scanner
42
____________ is an application software.
Answer
A. Word processor
43
KqO vs]p nPo]wLNñkqoLp NkShw¾V v|Lk]\ÿOW]a¨OÐ wQUXsRp _________ IÐV
v]t]¨OÐO.
Answer
C. WAN
44
KqO RvmVSk^V WLeL¢ DkSpLY]¨OÐ KqO Bkæ]S¨x¢ SyLlVãVRvp¡
Answer
B. NmTy¡
45
IT Act came into existence in the year
Answer
D. 2000
46
Time taken by Sunlight to travel from surface of Sun to Earth is
Answer
B. 8.3 minutes
47
What is the primary purpose of the large Hadron Collider (lHC) ?
Answer
C. Particle Physics research
48
yPq|j]sOU oãV jƒNf°t]sOU DT¡² DfVkLhjU _________ vu]pLeV.
Answer
D. AeO yUSpL^jU
49
What is the process by which living organisms obtain energy from food ?
Answer
B. Cellular respiration
50
The COP28 UN Climate Change Conference, was hosted by which city ?
Answer
D. dubai (UAE)
51
What is the value of x if 7x + 2 = 492x – 3 ?
8
Answer
B. —
52
If the sum of two numbers is 8 and the product is 15, what is the sum of their
reciprocals ?
1
Answer
C. 8
53
If the ratio of two positive numbers is 5 : 6 and the product is 480 then the greatest
number is
Answer
C. 24
54
If the sum of 4 consecutive odd numbers is 976 then the smallest odd number
among 4 is
Answer
B. 241
55
A pOU B pOU S\¡ÐV 12 h]vyU RWLºOU A pOU C pOU S\¡ÐV 8 h]vyU RWLºOU
B pOU C pOU S\¡ÐV 6 h]vyU RWLºOU KqO S^Ls] kP¡¾]pL¨LRoË]¤, B KãàV
B S^Ls] INf h]vyRWLºV kP¡¾]pL¨OU ?
Answer
D. 16 h]vyU
56
What is the next number; 5, 6, 14, 45, __ ?
Answer
B. 184
57
If the distance travelled by a car in ‘t’ seconds is given by d = 4t 2 – 3. If the car started
at 9 am, what is the distance travelled by the car between 9.02 am and 9.03 am ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
58
PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre ‘O’. draw tangent at P, mark a point R
on the circle and produce QR to meet the tangent at P at S. If ∠ PSQ = 48° then
∠ PQR =
Answer
B. 42°
59
KqO NkSf|W SWLcV nLxp]¤ dISCIPlINE IÐV IuOf]p]q]¨OÐfV CHRBHOKHmd
IÐLeV. B SWLc]¤ I°RjpLeV EdUCATION IuOfOÐfV ?
Answer
C. dCTBZSHNm
60
Abel has a brother Tom, Abel is the son of dennis. dany is dennis’s father. In terms
of relationship what is Tom of dany ?
Answer
B. Grandson
61
At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 50 minutes past 4 ?
Answer
C. 155
62
2 : 11 : : 3 : ______
Answer
Question Cancelled
63
If the 6th day of a month is 2 days earlier than Thursday. What day will it be on the
18th day of the month ?
Answer
C. Sunday
64
How many triangles are there in the following figure ?
Answer
D. 12
65
h}kWV 1 W]SsLo}ã¡ W]uS¨LŸV jaÐV RfS¨LŸV f]q]´V 5 W]SsLo}ã¡ ja¨OÐO. v}ºOU
W]uS¨LŸV f]q]´V 2 W]. o}. ja¨OÐO. Cf]jOSwxU vaS¨LŸV f]q]´V 9 W]SsLo}ã¡
ja¨OÐO. CSÕL¥, Av¢ fR£ BqUn SkLp]£]¤ j]ÐV INf AWRspLeV ?
Answer
D. 5 W]SsLo}ã¡
66
A class of girls stands in a single line. One girl is seventeenth in order from both the
ends. How many girls are there in the class ?
Answer
B. 33
67
Jungle : Zoo : : Sea : ?
Answer
A. Aquarium
68
5, 10, 26, 50, ..., 170.
Answer
B. 122
69
237 ÷ ______ = 23700.
Answer
B. 0.01
70
Which among the following numbers is divisible by ‘9’ ?
Answer
C. 5418
71
One must do _________ work.
Answer
C. one’s
72
Identify the correct spelling.
Answer
C. Acquaintance
73
Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer.
The majestic mahogany table ____________
p) belongs to an old king,
q) which had one leg missing
r) who is now impoverished
s) but not without some prode
Answer
Question Cancelled
74
Choose the most appropriate word for the following :
Rising air temperatures ___________ the physical nature of our oceans.
Answer
C. affect
75
Identify the synonym for ‘venerate’.
Answer
A. respect
76
Identify the Antonym for ‘Emaciation’.
Answer
A. Invigoration
77
Identify the pair of related words ‘Blurred : Confused’.
Answer
D. muddled : Unclear
78
A large dark grey cloud that brings rain or snow is called
Answer
B. nimbus
79
The idiom, ‘to have an axe to grind’ means
Answer
D. to have a selfish interest to serve
80
I ____________ (go) to the market with my friends now.
Answer
B. am going
81
This brand of furniture is ____________ any other brand of furniture in the market.
Answer
C. costlier than
82
She agree ____________ whatever conditions were put before her.
Answer
Question Cancelled
83
Identify the most suitable pair of words to complete the sentence.
despite being the _________ partner in the relationship, the franchiser does not always
have all the ________
Answer
D. dominant : advantages
84
We are happy that our Chief minister with the members of his cabinet _________ to
be present at the function.
Answer
A. is
85
No sooner had she entered the room _________ and everybody began to make
sound.
Answer
D. than the lights went out
86
We met her immediately after the session in which she ________ a nice speech.
Answer
B. had given
87
The guests admired my paintings but they ________ my writings.
Answer
C. seemed to have disliked
88
Find out the correct sentence.
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
Ornithology means
Answer
A. Study of birds
90
Select the alternative word for ‘distasteful’ from the following :
Answer
B. unpleasant
91
wq]pLp khU f]qR´aOR¾uOfOW.
Answer
B. ASqLYwq}qU
92
SkLRŸ + Av¢ – S\¡R¾uOf]pL¤
i) SkLŸv¢
ii) SkLRŸpv¢
Answer
C. (i) DU (ii) DU wq]
93
k]q]RˆuOfOW – WLŸ]Sj¢
Answer
A. WLŸ] + J¢
94
Rfã]ŠL¾ vLW|U f]qR´aOR¾uOfOW.
Answer
B. nLqf}p¡ IŠLvqOU SyÔzLhqnLvS¾LaOWPa] v¡¾]¨eU
95
No action seems to be called for on our part – IÐf]jV SpL^]ˆ ospLt v]v¡¾jU
IaOR¾uOfOW.
Answer
D. jÚORa nLY¾Oj]ÐV IRÍË]sOU jaka] IaOS¨ºfLp] SfLÐOÐ]Š
96
Sf¢ – IСÀU vqOÐ khU IaOR¾uOfOW.
Answer
D. oiPs]
97
RWL¾]R¨LºO kr¨LjOU vá CSŸˆO SkLWLjOU vá – IÐf]jO yoLj yΡn¾]¤
NkSpLY]¨LvOÐ oRãLqO kuRµLSŠfV ?
Answer
B. oiOq]ˆ]ŸO fOÕLjOU Sos, Wˆ]Ÿ]r¨LjOU Sos
98
If]¡s]UYU IuOfOW – R\Ÿ]ˆ]
Answer
Question Cancelled
99
o´ÕŸOaO¾v¢ – IСÀU vqOÐ khU IuOfOW.
Answer
B. k}fLUmq¢
100
iQf] – IÐ kh¾]R£ A¡ÀU.
i) DrÕV ii) RRòq|U iii) f]aO¨U iv) SvYU
Answer
D. IŠLU wq]
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