| Post Name | Company Secretary, Kerala State Civil Supplies Corporation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 045/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 376/2025 |
| Date of Test | 17 March 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Marked applications are those :
Answer
B. Received through a particular underwriter
2
Internal reconstruction is carried out mainly to :
Answer
B. Write oļ¬ accumulated losses
3
Continuation of business of transferor company is a condition of :
Answer
D. Amalgamation in the nature of Merger
4
In external reconstruction, the old company is :
Answer
A. Liquidated
5
Capital Redemption Reserve is created when buy back of share is made out of :
Answer
C. Free reserves
6
In cash ļ¬ow statement purchase of machinery is classiļ¬ed as :
Answer
B. Investing activity
7
Debt-Equity Ratio measures :
Answer
C. Solvency
8
When forfeited shares are reissued at a discount, the discount is debited to :
Answer
C. Share Forfeiture Account
9
Under indirect method of preparation of cash ļ¬ow statement, depreciation is :
Answer
B. Added back to net proļ¬t
10
Net working capital means :
Answer
C. Current Assets - Current Liabilities
11
Which of the following would be the most eļ¬ective strategy for an investor looking to minimize unsystematic risk in their portfolio?
Answer
B. Allocating funds to a diversiļ¬ed broad-market index fund or exchange- traded fund (ETF)
12
If a stock's intrinsic value is Rs.800 and its market price is Rs.740, which of the following is most likely true regarding the stock's future performance?
Answer
C. The stock's expected return is higher than the required rate of return
13
Identify the statement that most accurately explains the deļ¬ning characteristic of a cyclical industry in relation to business cycle ļ¬uctuations.
Answer
A. Proļ¬ts that rise during economic expansions and decline during recessions
14
The point where the Capital Market Line touches the Eļ¬cient Frontier is known as the :
Answer
D. Market Portfolio
15
The primary objective of the Asset Allocation Pyramid is to :
Answer
B. Create a structured hierarchy of investments based on their risk-return proļ¬les
16
Identify the professional service that allows an investor to maintain a personalized portfolio while retaining direct ownership of the underlying securities.
Answer
A. Portfolio Management Services
17
Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's Five Forces?
Answer
D. Competitive advantage of the ļ¬rm
18
An investor holds a 20-year Treasury bond. If market interest rates fall by 1%, the investor will most likely experience :
Answer
B. Bond price increases
19
An investment strategy characterized by signiļ¬cant allocation to high-grade corporate bonds and established blue-chip equities is primarily intended to achieve :
Answer
A. A balanced objective of capital preservation and steady long-term growth
20
Which of the following statistical measures is most widely used to assess the total risk associated with an investment?
Answer
B. Standard Deviation
21
STP in marketing stands for :
Answer
C. Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning
22
In the Product Life Cycle, heavy promotional expenditure is most common in the :
Answer
B. Introduction stage
23
Which pricing strategy is most suitable during the introduction stage when demand is uncertain and competition is low?
Answer
B. Skimming pricing
24
A ļ¬rm that integrates backward into raw material supply is practicing :
Answer
C. Backward integration
25
Assertion (A): Cognitive dissonance is stronger in high- involvement purchases such as buying a car or a house. Reason (R) : High ļ¬nancial or psychological risk associated with such purchases increases the likelihood of post-purchase doubt in the consumer's mind.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
26
Which of the following statements are correct : (i) GTI is not rounded oļ¬ (ii) Agricultural income is not included in GTI (iii) GTI is rounded oļ¬ to the nearest multiple of ten rupees (iv) Tax is not levied on GTI
Answer
B. i, ii and iv are correct
27
The rate of tax applicable to the highest slab of income is :
Answer
C. MMR
28
Section 15 of Income tax Act deals with :
Answer
A. Salaries
29
Fully taxable allowances include : (i) Dearness Allowance or Dearness Pay (ii) Hill allowance (iii) LTC (iv) Medical allowance
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
30
Employer's contribution to Unrecognised Provident Fund is :
Answer
A. Taxable under the head income from salaries.
31
Which are correct about the GAV? (i) GAV is equal to the Actual rent received when Actual rent is higher than Municipal value and standard Rent (ii) When Fare Rental Value is more than Actual Rent, Fare Rental Value is the Gross Annual Value (iii) When Actual rent is more than Fare Rental Value, Actual Rent is the Gross Annual Value (iv) When standard Rent is more than Actual Rent, Standard Rent is the Gross Annual Value
Answer
A. All are correct
32
Identify the wrong statement from the following : (i) Indexation is possible in the case of short-term capital gains. (ii) Land, building or both become capital asset only when held for at least 24 months (iii) Long term capital loss can be set oļ¬ against long term capital gain (iv) Any cost improvement before 1-4-2001 is not considered to determine Long Term Capital Gain
Answer
A. (i)
33
A method adopted by investors in shares and mutual fund units to reduce tax liability by buying additional units just before the record date is_______
Answer
A. Bonus stripping
34
If securities are transferred to a friend or relative , not having income exceeding the exemption limit or when transferee has income taxable at lower rates of tax only, such practices are known as ___________
Answer
B. Bond washing transactions
35
TDS is not deducted on lottery income up to _________
Answer
B. 10000
36
Income from House Property is_______
Answer
A. Income From House Property
37
TDS rate on lottery is ________
Answer
B. 30%
38
Business loss can't set oļ¬ against______
Answer
C. Salaries
39
If a person is eligible to claim (i) Unabsorbed depreciation (ii) Current scientiļ¬c research expenditure (iii) Current depreciation (iv) Brought forward business loss The order of priority to set oļ¬ :
Answer
C. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
40
Mr. G received a car as a gift from a relative having a free market value of Rs.8,00,000. What amount is taxable in the hands?
Answer
A. 8,00,000
41
GST in India was implemented from :
Answer
B. 1st July 2017
42
GST is which type of tax?
Answer
B. Indirect Tax
43
Which authority recommends GST rates in India?
Answer
C. GST Council
44
Input Tax Credit (ITC) means :
Answer
B. Tax paid on inputs that can be claimed as credit
45
Which GST return is ļ¬led monthly by regular taxpayers?
Answer
B. GSTR-3B
46
Under GST, "Consideration" does NOT include :
Answer
A. Subsidy given by Central Government
47
Place of supply for services relating to immovable property is :
Answer
D. Location of immovable property
48
Which of the following is NOT a composite supply?
Answer
C. Sale of laptop with optional insurance
49
Zero-rated supplies include :
Answer
B. Supplies to SEZ and exports
50
In case of mixed supply, tax rate applicable will be :
Answer
A. Highest rate
51
Which of the following statement is/are correct about sources of law? (i) The material sources of law provides the content of the law, such as religious writings or customs. (ii) The formal sources of law represents the will and power of the state. (iii) Judicial precedents are not a primary source of law
Answer
A. Only (i) & (ii)
52
Which among the following is not an advantage of an incorporated company?
Answer
C. Finite membership
53
Which among the following is/are common reasons for an extra ordinary general meeting of a company? (i) Authorising urgent investments or borrowing (ii) Appointing or removing directors (iii) Approving corporate restructuring
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
54
A contract that is considered void from the beginning is called ___________
Answer
B. Void Ab Initio
55
As per the Indian Contract Act 1872, a surety is discharged from the liability
Answer
D. All of the above
56
An agency can be terminated by either the principal or the agent
Answer
C. On principal becoming on Alien enemy
57
The liability of which of the following parties ends when a negotiable instrument is discharged?
Answer
A. Primary liable party
58
The mandatory appointment of a full time company secretary for every listed company and publishing company with a paid up share capital of Rs.10 crore or more is done as per __________ of the companies Act, 2013
Answer
B. Section 203
59
Which of the following is not a function of the company secretary as per section 205 of the companies Act, 2013?
Answer
A. Approving the ļ¬nancial statements on behalf of the company
60
As per the companies Act 2013, the secretarial Audit report must be annexed to :
Answer
D. The Board's report
61
_________ is calculated by market capitalization plus debt and preferred shares minus cash and cash equivalents of a company
Answer
B. Enterprise value
62
Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer
C. If PI of a project is less than 1, its NPV should be less than 0
63
Which of the following is not a assumption of the Modigliani-Miller model?
Answer
C. Unity for dividend payout ratio
64
Financial leverage in a ļ¬rm positively aļ¬ected by which of the following?
Answer
D. Tax rate
65
If a company issues bonus shares, the debt equity ratio
Answer
A. Remain unaļ¬ected
66
Capital Asset Pricing Model accounts for
Answer
B. Systematic Risk
67
An EBIT-EPS indiļ¬erence analysis chart is used for
Answer
B. Evaluating EPS results for alternative ļ¬nancing plans
68
Current ratio is 4:1 Net working capital is 30,000. Find the amount of current asset
Answer
B. Rs.40,000
69
Sensitivity analysis in capital budgeting primarily examines
Answer
A. Changes in NPV due to variation in key variables like sales, cost etc
70
Under capital budgeting selection of project is based on _____
Answer
B. Proļ¬tability index to maximize NPV per unit of capital
71
Which of following is (are) incorrect and incomplete statement in respect of interrelationship among components of Financial System? (i) Savings and investments are linked through a wide variety of complex ļ¬nancial instruments known as securities (ii) Financial services rendered by the ļ¬nancial intermediaries bridge the gap between lack of knowledge on the part of investors and the increasing sophistication of ļ¬nancial instruments and markets (iii) Financial Services help ļ¬nancial markets and ļ¬nancial intermediate to perform the role of channelizing funds from lenders to borrowers (iv) Financial intermediaries mobilize saving by issuing diļ¬erent types of ļ¬nancial instruments which are traded in the ļ¬nancial markets.
Answer
B. (iii) only
72
The following facts are related to the functions of Financial System. Match Column A enlisting functions and Column B describing the functions of Financial System Column A Column B A Financial Deepening I Financial Intermediation B Savings Function II ADR, GDR, FCCB C Liquidity Function III Increase ļ¬nancial assets as per cent of GDP D Cross broader resource IV Easy and fast conversation of mobiliser securities into cash E Risk Function V Diversiļ¬cation
Answer
D. (A-III), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-II), (E-V)
73
Which of the following ļ¬nancial instruments (is) are classiļ¬ed as ļ¬nancial assets? (i) Letter of Guarantee (ii) Financial Derivatives (iii) Letter of Credit (iv) Loans and Borrowings
Answer
A. (ii) and (iv) only
74
Which of the following is (are) correct description of diļ¬erence (s) between Oļ¬er for Sale (OFS) and Follow on Public Oļ¬er (FPO)? (i) OFS is open for a day, FPO is open for a week (ii) OFS allows bids at oļ¬er price, FPO at many prices (iii) OFS allotments are assured not so in FPO (iv) OFS is a long process while FPO involves only a short process
Answer
C. (i) only
75
With respect to Organisation of Mutual funds in India, entities and major functions are tables below. Match the entities with their major functions. Column A (Entities) Column B (Function) A Asset Management I Maintain Records Company B Sponsors II Handles Mutual Fund Portfolio C Transfer Agents III Settles Securities Transactions D Trustees IV Promotors of Mutual Fund E Custodian V Appoint Custodian of Fund
Answer
B. (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-V), (E-III)
76
Which of the following facts match correctly with respect to purpose for which fund is created in Mutual fund? (i) Growth funds are schemes that aim at capital appreciation equally with current / regular income (ii) Sector funds makes investments in securities of certain sector of economy (iii) Index Funds match performance of stock market by tracking an index that represents overall market (iv) Gilt funds typically invest in securities of short-term nature i.e. securities of less than one year maturity
Answer
C. (ii) & (iii) only
77
Which of the following is (are) correct with respect to types of issues in primary market? I. Listing and Trading of securities of a company takes place in IPO. II. Existing shareholders pattern is disturbed in Right issue. III. Private placement is other form of public issue where in securities are made available for sale in the open market. IV. Bonus issue is nothing but capitalisation of Reserves.
Answer
D. I & IV only
78
Which of the following statements are incorrect explanations as to functions of stock exchanges? I. The forces of demand and supply work freely in the stock exchange and thereby prices of securities are determined. II. Availability of ready market for sale and purchase of securities increases its marketability and enhances liquidity. III. Stock exchanges serve as clearing House of Business information as listed companies have to provide ļ¬nancial statements and other reports to exchanges that ensure maximum publicity of corporations' operations and working IV. Listing is enabled via stock exchanges which does guarantee the ļ¬nancial stability of the company
Answer
B. IV only
79
You are given the Features of Swing Trading. Identify the inappropriate feature of swing trading out of the following characteristics I. A strategy which involves buying and selling of securities within the same day II. The aim of this strategy is to proļ¬t from short term ups and downs within a larger trend III. Traders use fundamental analysis to identify the best time to buy or sell security. IV. Traders commonly use stop loss orders and take proļ¬t levels to control their risk and secure proļ¬ts
Answer
A. I & III only
80
Which of the following statements are correct in relation to Indian Depository Receipts (IDR)? I. The companies act was amended in 2004 to permit foreign companies to oļ¬er shares in the form of Depository receipts in India. II. An issue of Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs) in a ļ¬nancial year cannot exceed 25% of the issuing company's paid-up capital and free reserves III. Before issuing Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs) in India, the issuing foreign company must have a track record of distributalble proļ¬ts for at least 2 out of the preceding 3 ļ¬nancial years. IV. IDRs can be transferred and redeemed subject to the provisions of the FEMA
Answer
D. II & IV only
81
PESTLE analysis is used to study :
Answer
B. Macro environmental factors
82
Corporate-level strategy deals with :
Answer
C. Overall direction of the organization
83
TOWS matrix is mainly used for :
Answer
B. Strategy formulation
84
PERT is best suited for projects where :
Answer
C. Time estimates are uncertain
85
CPM focuses mainly on :
Answer
B. Cost and time optimization
86
In BCG Matrix, a 'Star' represents :
Answer
C. High growth, high market share
87
GE Matrix uses which two dimensions?
Answer
B. Industry attractiveness & business strength
88
Strategic management is primarily concerned with :
Answer
B. Long-term direction and performance of an organization
89
Strategic leadership mainly focuses on :
Answer
C. Inļ¬uencing others to achieve long-term organizational goals
90
Ansoļ¬'s Matrix focuses on :
Answer
B. Product-market growth strategies
91
Which of the following statement is correct to the concept of Demand?
Answer
C. It denotes ability and willingness to buy goods
92
Which of the following statement is correct to the Law of demand?
Answer
A. Demand schedule depicts the price-quantity relation, which explains the Law of demand
93
Which of the following statements is/are correct to Law of Supply? (i) Law of supply is explained as the suppliers can earn higher proļ¬t at an increased price; hence they supply more (ii) The supply curve slops upward from left to right (iii) Law of supply is applicable in the case of agricultural products (iv) One of the assumptions of law of supply is that all the factors including price of commodity remains constant at various level of supply
Answer
B. Only (i) & (ii)
94
Which of the following statement is/are correct to perfect competitive market condition? (i) There are large number of undiļ¬erentiated buyers an small number of sellers. (ii) The quantity supplied by anyone of the supplier must be insigniļ¬cant that it does not aļ¬ect the total supply and the market price (iii) Each seller is distinguishable, so that one can be substituted for the other (iv) Trading must be continuous and buyer and seller must be well informed about the product and the market
Answer
D. Only (ii) & (iv)
95
Match the following : 1. Monopsony (i) Market with small number of sellers 2. Monopoly (ii) There are only two sellers 3. Oligopoly (iii) There are only two buyers 4. Duopoly (iv) Seller set the price himself (v) There is only one buyer
Answer
B. (1-v), (2-iv), (3-i), (4-ii)
96
Which of the following statement is Not correct to monopolistic competition?
Answer
A. There are many sellers selling homogeneous products
97
Which of the following statement is correct to National Income?
Answer
C. Under expenditure method, National Income is measured by adding all the expenditure made on the goods and services during the speciļ¬c period
98
Which of the following statements is/are correct to Indian economy? (i) There is a steady decrease in the contribution to Gross Domestic Product by agriculture and allied activities (ii) There is an improvement in the operation of banking and ļ¬nancial sector (iii) No change in the shares of basic and capital goods industries in the total industrial production (iv) Occupational distribution of population slowly changes in favour of the industrial and service sectors
Answer
A. Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
99
Which of the following statements is/are correct to Indian Financial System? (i) Introduction and growth of markets for Repo and Reverse Repo instruments (ii) The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. was set up in April, 2001 (iii) Schemes such as One-time settlement scheme, The Credit Debt Restructuring Mechanism are helped to reduce NPA levels of Banks (iv) Financial Inclusion helped in delivering ļ¬nancial services to the vast sections of disadvantaged and low-income groups at an aļ¬ordable cost.
Answer
D. All are correct
100
____________ is the ļ¬rst stock exchange in India which introduced screen-based automated ringless trading system
Answer
C. Over The Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI)
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