| Post Name | Dairy Farm Instructor - Kerala Dairy Development |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 242/2023 |
| Category Code | 691/2022, 419/2022 |
| Date of Test | 16 December 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
What are the four fundamental forces of nature from strongest to weakest ?
Answer
B. Strong nuclear force, Electromagnetic force, Weak nuclear force, Gravity
2
Identify the dimensionless quantity from the following.
Answer
B. Relative density
3
A particle moves along a circular path of radius, r. What is the distance and displacement of the particle after one complete revolution?
Answer
A. 2πr, 0
4
Which among the following is a scalar quantity ?
Answer
C. Pressure
5
Which law is also known as law of inertia?
Answer
A. Newton’s I law
6
A moving body has kinetic energy 50 J. The work done to stop the body is given by
Answer
C. 50 J
7
Hooke’s law is
Answer
C. Stress ∝ Strain
8
Action of detergents
Answer
A. decreases the surface tension of water
9
Sea breeze is based on
Answer
B. Convection
10
The relation connecting frequency (f) and time period (T) of a periodic motion is
Answer
D. f = 1/T
11
Quantization of charge is
Answer
A. Q = ±ne
12
Unit of electric potential is
Answer
A. Joule/Coulomb
13
Which among the following materials that obey Ohm’s law ?
Answer
B. Conductors
14
A ferromagnetic substance above curie temperature
Answer
B. Becomes paramagnetic
15
The principle behind transformer is
Answer
B. mutual induction
16
Tuning of radio is based on
Answer
C. Resonance
17
Optical fibres works on the principle of
Answer
D. Total internal reflection
18
In photoelectric effect, the number of photo electrons emitted per second depend on
Answer
A. Intensity of incident light
19
The source of energy of the sun is
Answer
C. Nuclear fusion
20
The process of conversion of alternating current into direct current is known as
Answer
C. Rectification
21
Which experiment is responsible for finding out the charge of an electron ?
Answer
B. millikan’s oil drop method
22
Acetylene molecule has carbon in
Answer
A. sp hybridisation
23
Enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are
Answer
B. Zero
24
Identify the Lewis acid among the following.
Answer
C. BF₃
25
Which of the following is a buffer ?
Answer
D. NH4OH + NH4Cl
26
In the Lassaigne’s test for Nitrogen in an organic compound, the Prussian blue colour is obtained due to the formation of
Answer
B. Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃
27
Purification method used for separating Glycerol from Spent-lye in soap industry is
Answer
C. distillation under reduced pressure
28
Number of moles of the solute per kilogram of the solvent is
Answer
B. molality
29
Which of the following is an example for an ideal solution ?
Answer
D. Benzene + toluene
30
The conversion of molecules-A to B follows second order kinetics. If the concentration of A is increased to two times how will it affect the rate of formation of B ?
Answer
B. Rate will increase four times
31
Choose the correct expression for Arrhenius equation.
Answer
D. k = Ae^(−Ea/RT)
32
The Carbon-Oxygen bond length in phenol is
Answer
C. 136 pm
33
During fermentation which gas is released?
Answer
C. CO₂
34
Identify allylic alcohol from the following.
Answer
D. CH₂=CH–CH₂–OH
35
Fill in the reagents A, B and C for the conversion CH₃COCl —A→ CH₃CHO —B→ CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CHO —C→ CH₃CH=CHCHO.
Answer
B. A: Pd/BaSO₄; B: dilute NaOH; C: heat
36
Carboxylic acid can be prepared from Grignard reagent by the reaction with
Answer
D. Carbon dioxide
37
General formula of carbohydrate is
Answer
Question Cancelled
38
In fibrous protein polypeptide chains are held together by
Answer
C. Hydrogen and disulphide bonds
39
Enzyme which can catalyze hydrolysis of maltose to glucose is
Answer
B. maltase
40
Which choice contains all the three molecular units found in nucleotides ?
Answer
C. Phosphate, nitrogen containing base, sugar
41
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from
Answer
D. Anther to stigma between two flowers of the same plant
42
From the list of fruits below select true fruit.
Answer
C. mango
43
Choose the selectable marker gene of cloning vector pBR 322.
Answer
B. ampᴿ
44
Rosie is a transgenic animal. It belongs to
Answer
C. Cow
45
The population interaction between Barnacles and Whale is
Answer
A. Commensalism
46
From the following list of pteridophytes choose a heterosporous pteridophyte.
Answer
B. Selaginella
47
Parietal placentation is found in
Answer
C. Argemone
48
Name the stage at which synapsis of homologous chromosomes appears during prophase I of meiosis.
Answer
A. Zygotene
49
Name the first stable product of carbon dioxide fixation in C₄ plants.
Answer
B. Oxaloacetic Acid
50
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is
Answer
C. RQ = volume of CO₂ evolved / volume of O₂ consumed
51
Which statement is not correct about Osteoporosis ?
Answer
B. Increased levels of estrogen is a common cause of it
52
Enzymes which catalyse transfer of a group other than hydrogen, belong to the class
Answer
D. Transferase
53
Which of the following are sensory organs in Phylum Arthropoda ? 1. Simple or compound eye. 2. Statocyst or balancing organ. 3. Malpighian tubules. 4. Antennae.
Answer
D. All except 3
54
Which of the following is not a goal of Human Genome Project ?
Answer
C. Restrict the related technologies, so that the other sectors do not benefitted with it
55
Sacred groves are one of the important means of biodiversity conservation. In respect of this, find out the odd one.
Answer
C. Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar – Tamil Nadu
56
Match the following: 1. Pectinases; 2. Stre
Answer
A. 1–iv, 2–iii, 3–ii, 4–i
57
Find the incorrect matching.
Answer
C. Heart failure – Heart attack
58
The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography is called
Answer
B. Adaptive radiation
59
Match the source gland with its respective hormone and function and select the correct option.
Answer
A. Pineal gland — Melatonin — Regulation of 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm in man
60
Assertion : Sex of human body is determined by father, not by mother. reason : Xy chromosome is present in human male. Read the above assertion and reason carefully to select the correct option out of the options given below :
Answer
A. If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
61
Let A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 3, n(B) = 4, then n(A×B) equals
Answer
B. 12
62
What is the derivative of log 3?
Answer
D. 0
63
limₓ→π⁄₄ (sin x + cos x) equals
Answer
B. √2
64
In the expansion of (a+b)²ⁿ, which is the middle term?
Answer
B. tₙ₊₁
65
How many chords can be drawn through 8 points on a circle ?
Answer
B. 28
66
3! – 2! equals
Answer
D. 4
67
Find the number of permutations using all the letters of the word AllAHABAd.
Answer
B. 7560
68
Three coins are tossed once. What is the probability of getting at most 2 heads?
Answer
A. 7/8
69
How many terms of a geometric progression 1, 2, 2², ... are needed to give the sum 63?
Answer
C. 6
70
The interval in which the function f given by f(x) = x² − 4x + 6 is strictly increasing is
Answer
D. (2, ∞)
71
Which of the following relations on A = {1, 2, 3} is an equivalence relation ?
Answer
A. {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)}
72
The function given f : N → N by f(x) = 2x is
Answer
B. One-one but not onto
73
sin⁻¹(sin x) = x is defined on
Answer
A. x ∈ [−π/2, π/2]
74
The slope of the tangent to the curve y = x³ − x at x = 2 is
Answer
B. 11
75
If f(x) = 8x³ and g(x) = x^(1/3), the (g∘f)(x) is
Answer
C. 2x
76
The number of all possible 2×2 matrices with entries 0 or 1 is
Answer
A. 16
77
The value of the determinant |x, x−1; x+1, x| is
Answer
D. 1
78
If A and B are square matrices of the same order, then (A+B)(A−B) is equal to
Answer
C. A² − B² + BA − AB
79
If A is a 3×3 matrix with |A| = 5, then |adj A| is
Answer
D. 25
80
Let A = [[1, 3], [−2, 4]], then adj A is
Answer
A. [[4, −3], [2, 1]]
81
Which of the following statement is correct regarding zebu cattle? 1. They are well adapted to tropical climate. 2. They have low nutritional requirements. 3. They have low disease resistance. 4. They have high potential for milk production.
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
82
The first phase of operation flood was financed by the sale of skim milk powder and butter oil gifted by
Answer
C. European Economic Community
83
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Operation Flood (OF) program? 1. OF phase 1 started in 1962. 2. OF phase 2 started in 1979. 3. OF phase 2 concluded in 1981.
Answer
Question Cancelled
84
Which of the following are the objectives of “National Project for Cattle and Buffalo Breeding” (NPCBB) ? 1. Arrange delivery of vastly improved artificial insemination service at the farmers door-step. 2. Bring all breedable females among cattle and buffalo under organized breeding through artificial insemination or natural service. 3. Undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle and buffaloes.
Answer
D. All of the above
85
It is recommended to withdraw milk feeding of calves at ________ of age.
Answer
B. 2.5 – 3 months
86
Which of the following is/are not true about dairy cattle housing ? 1. The floor may be given a slope of 1 in 85 depending upon the type of flooring. 2. The length and width of standing space is kept variable from 1.5 to 1.7 m and 1 to 1.2 m per animal respectively. 3. All edges in rectangular fixtures have to be rounded and finished smooth as far as possible.
Answer
A. 1 only
87
__________ grass is formed by a cross between elephant grass and bajra.
Answer
C. Hybrid Napier
88
Which of the following is not a sanitizing agent used in dairying ?
Answer
D. detergents
89
LTLT pasteurization is done at
Answer
D. 63°C for 30 min
90
The pricing of milk in dairy cooperatives in India is based on
Answer
C. Fat and SNF content
91
The minimum fat and SNF content of toned milk as per FSSA standard is
Answer
A. 3 and 8.5
92
Which of the following platform test help in finding the heat stability of milk ?
Answer
C. Clot on boiling test
93
minimum per cent milk fat in ice cream as per FSSA standard is
Answer
B. 10 per cent
94
Which of the following microorganisms is not responsible for the fermentation of milk into curd/dahi ?
Answer
D. Escherichia coli
95
Which dairy product results from the coagulation of milk proteins by acidification/ enzyme action ?
Answer
A. Cheese
96
What is the primary function of a hydrometer in dairy quality control ?
Answer
C. Assessing milk solids-not-fat (SNF) content
97
What is the reason for conducting a sensory evaluation of dairy products ?
Answer
B. To assess consumer preferences and product attributes
98
When conducting quality control for dairy product packaging, what is the primary objective of evaluating seals and closures on containers ?
Answer
D. To maintain product freshness and prevent contamination
99
Which of the following milk products does not contain sucrose ?
Answer
C. Skim milk powder
100
Which of the following fat rich dairy products does not contain protein ?
Answer
A. Ghee
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