| Post Name | DENTAL ASSISTANT SURGEON - Health Services Department |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 160/2025 |
| Category Code | 375/2024 |
| Date of Test | 28 November 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Match the following and choose the correct combination given below :
Column – I Column – II
(Name of joint) (Type of synovial joint)
Answer
C. Sternoclavicular joint (iii) Pivot joint
2
Example for circumpennate muscle is :
Answer
D. Tibialis anterior muscle
3
Valves are absent in the following veins except :
Answer
A. Testicular vein
4
True statement about sesamoid bone is/are :
(i) It is composed of woven bone.
(ii) It is nourished through the vessels in the Haversian canals.
(iii) It ossifies after birth.
(iv) It does not have periosteum.
Answer
D. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
3 A
5
Superficial fascia contains all except :
(i) Lymph nodes.
(ii) Mammary gland.
(iii) Sebaceous gland.
(iv) Muscles.
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
6
Assertion : Sympathetic nervous system is known as thoracolumbar outflow.
Reason : Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of sympathetic system are
located in the ventral horns of all thoracic segments and upper two
lumbar segments of spinal cord.
Answer
C. Assertion is true and Reason is false.
7
Which of the following statement is/are correct about apoptosis?
(i) It is a process of programmed cell death
(ii) Also called as cell suicide
(iii) Abnormal apoptosis occurs in autoimmune diseases and cancer
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, iii)
8
Which of the following statement is/are correct about sodium-potassium ATPase pump?
(i) It is an electrogenic pump
(ii) Accounts for a large part of the basal metabolism
(iii) Needed for generation of achon potential
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
9
Which of the following statement is/are correct about facilitated diffusion?
(i) Occurs in the direction of concentration gradient
(ii) Occurs in the direction opposite to electrical gradient
(iii) Does not require energy
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
160/2025 4 A
10
Which of the following statement is/are correct about human body fluid compartments?
(i) Total blood volume is about 8% of body weight.
(ii) About 1 3 rd of total body water is extracellular, remaining 2 3 rd is intracellular fluid.
(iii) Interstitial fluid accounts for 75% of ECF volume.
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, iii)
11
Which of the following statement is/are correct about mitochondria?
(i) Provides ATP by oxidative phosphorylation
(ii) Mitochondrial inheritance is maternal
(iii) Mutation rate for mitochondrial DNA is 10 times the rate for nuclear DNA
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, iii)
12
Which of the following statement is/are correct about gap junctions?
(i) It permits rapid propagation of electrical activity from cell to cell
(ii) It is traversed by a channel that connects the two cells
(iii) Are simply passive and non-specific conduits
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
13
Which of the following is a proapoptotic agent?
Answer
B. BCL 2
14
The factor involved in classical Macrophage activation is :
Answer
A. IFN – γ
15
A venous embolus passing through interarterial defect and gaining access to systemic
arterial circulation is called :
Answer
B. Paradoxical Embolus
16
Prostaglandin D2 is produced in mast cells by :
Answer
D. Cyclooxygenase pathway
160/2025 5 A
17
Anaplasia refers to :
Answer
A. Lack of Differentiation
18
The major cytokine involved in fibrosis is :
Answer
C. TGF β
19
Calculate the volume of distribution of a drug if the total drug in the body is 500 mg and
plasma concentration is 10 mg/L :
Answer
B. 50 L
20
A drug which has high plasma protein binding will have the following properties except :
Answer
A. High volume of distribution
21
Choose the ligand gated receptor :
Answer
D. 2)
22
Choose the drug which is a CYP3A4 enzyme inhibitor :
Answer
C. Erythromycin
23
Amount of drug needed to produce a certain response is :
Answer
C. Potency
24
Histamine and Adrenaline are :
Answer
C. Physiological antagonist
25
Which of the following are true regarding Abetalipoproteinemia?
(i) Spinocerebellar ataxia is seen.
(ii) Mutation in the MTTP gene.
(iii) Urinary 17 keto steroid excretion is increased.
(iv) Acanthosis nigricans is seen.
Answer
D. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
26
Which is the LDH isoenzyme in brain?
Answer
C. LDH 3
27
Lab findings of Acute Intermittent Porphyria include :
Answer
C. Urine Amino levulinic acid and Porphobilinogen increased, plasma porphyrin
normal
28
Which of the following statements are true about Polyamines?
(i) Requires methionine and citrulline for its synthesis
(ii) Requires SAM decarboxylase as key enzyme
(iii) Concentration is increased in cancer tissue
(iv) They are important for biosynthesis of proteins
Answer
D. Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
160/2025 7 A
29
Which of the following statements are true about Wolman’s disease?
(i) It is a cholesterol ester storage disorder
(ii) Hypohidrosis is an important clinical feature
(iii) X-ray shows Erlenmeyer-flask deformity
(iv) Presents with vomiting and diarrhoea
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iv) are correct
30
A 7-year-old boy presents with recurrent episodes of Meningococcal meningitis. He was
evaluated for immune functions and his immunoglobulin levels. Total WBC count and
neutrophil function were found to be within normal limits. Flow cytometric analysis
reveals normal expression of CD55 and CD59 on erythrocytes. However, complement
activity testing shows normal C3 levels but markedly reduced CH50
Answer
B. C5-C9 deficiency
31
A 30 year old male with cystic fibrosis is presented to medicine OPD with complaints of
chronic productive cough. Sputum culture isolated Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The
possible biofilm formation was suspected by the clinician and he was started on low dose
Azithromycin as long term therapy.
Which of the following best explains the mechanism by which azithromycin benefits this
patient?
Answer
D. It interferes with bacterial quorum sensing by suppressing regulator genes
32
Which cytokine released in response to endotoxin plays the most important role in
mediating endotoxic (septic) shock?
Answer
A. TNF - α
33
In a competitive ELISA, increasing concentration of antigen in the test sample will
lead to :
Answer
B. Decreased color intensity due to inhibition of conjugate binding
34
Rheumatoid factor (RF) is commonly detected by agglutination or ELISA methods as
part of rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis. Which of the following statements best describes
the immunologic nature and diagnostic significance of RF?
Answer
C. Anti CCP
35
The safety muscle of tongue is :
Answer
C. Genioglossus
36
The epithelium lining palatine tonsil is :
Answer
C. Stratified squamous non keratinised
37
Which muscle forms the boundary of tonsillar bed?
Answer
B. Superior constrictor
38
The thin layer of tissue that covers the root of the tooth and attaches it to the
surrounding bone is :
Answer
B. Cementum
39
The parotid duct opens :
Answer
A. Opposite second upper molar tooth
40
The dental pulp consists of :
Answer
D. All of the above
160/2025 9 A
41
Which nerve is responsible for conducting sensory information from anterior 2 3 rd of
tongue?
Answer
C. Lingual
42
A mandibular first molar with deep caries shows lingering pain to cold. Radiograph
shows an intact lamina dura and no periapical changes.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
Answer
C. Complete pulpectomy
43
During root canal preparation of a curved canal, the clinician fails to establish a glide
path. Which procedural error is most likely?
Answer
B. Ledge formation
44
A Class II composite restoration develops postoperative sensitivity even though margins
and occlusion are satisfactory. What is the most likely cause?
Answer
A. Polymerization shrinkage stress
45
An endodontically treated molar requires full-coverage restoration. A post is avoided
because 3 mm of sound coronal dentin remains circumferentially above the finish line.
Which biomechanical principle justifies this?
Answer
B. Presence of ferrule effect
46
In a tooth with necrotic pulp and immature apex, regenerative endodontic treatment is
chosen over traditional apexification primarily because it :
Answer
B. Allows continued root maturation
47
During crown preparation for a tooth with extensive Class II amalgam restoration, the
dentist notes undermined enamel and secondary caries. The ideal management is to :
Answer
C. Remove amalgam, evaluate dentin and place bonded core buildup
48
After obturation, a clinician notices sealer puff slightly beyond the apex on radiograph.
The patient is asymptomatic. The best course of action is to :
Answer
C. Leave as is and monitor clinically
49
Macroglossia is a characteristic feature of which among the following syndromes?
(i) Down syndrome
(ii) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
(iii) Parry-Romberg syndrome
(iv) Apert syndrome
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
50
San Diego criteria for primary Sjogren syndrome include :
(i) Positive Rose Bengal Staining of cornea or conjunctiva
(ii) Abnormal finding from biopsy of minor salivary gland
(iii) Serologic evidence of systemic autoimmunity
(iv) Clinical features of rheumatoid arthritis
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
51
Patients with Plummer-Vinson Syndrome may exhibits which of the following
conditions?
(i) Microcytic normochromic anemia
(ii) Glossitis
(iii) Esophageal webs
(iv) Koilonychia
Answer
C. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
52
Which of the following oral manifestations are strongly associated with HIV infection?
(i) Candidiasis
(ii) Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
(iii) Kaposi sarcoma
(iv) Aphthous stomatitis
Answer
A. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
53
Loss of lamina dura on dental radiographs can be observed in which of the following
conditions?
(i) Hypothyroidism
(ii) Hyperparathyroidism
(iii) Cushing’s syndrome
(iv) Acromegaly
Answer
B. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
54
Cafe-au-lait pigmentation is seen in which of the following conditions?
(i) McCune – Albright syndrome
(ii) Jaffe-Lichtenstein syndrome
(iii) Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia syndromes
(iv) Von Recklinghausen’s disease of the skin
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
55
The most commonly affected tooth in Primary Failure of Eruption (PFE) is :
Answer
A. Permanent first molars
56
The Total Rotation of the mandible during growth is best represented as :
Answer
D. Total Rotation = Internal Rotation – External Rotation
57
In the surgical orthodontic management of skeletal malocclusions, which orthognathic
Surgical Procedure is the most stable?
Answer
C. Maxilla up
58
Which of the following is not a goal of adjunctive orthodontic treatment in adults?
Answer
D. To improve occlusion in patients with temporomandibular disorders (TMD)
59
The Artistic Positioning bends given during the finishing phase of treatment with
standard edgewise appliance are :
Answer
C. Second-order bends
60
If heavy and sustained pressure is applied by the labial bow of a removable appliance,
the undermining resorption typically begins after :
Answer
C. 3-5 days
61
The phase of very slow eruption that occurs after the post emergent spurt, once the tooth
has reached the occlusal level of adjacent teeth and is in full function, is known as :
Answer
B. Juvenile Occlusal Equilibrium
62
Which among the following statements regarding caries and pulpal inflammation in
primary teeth are correct?
(i) The primary pulp mounts a different response to occlusal caries progression as that
of a permanent tooth.
(ii) Deep proximal caries produces a more widespread inflammation than an occlusal
lesion of similar size
(iii) The extent of breakdown of the marginal ridge gives an indication of how much of
the pulp will be inflamed
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
63
Sodium Fluoride is:
Answer
D. All of the above
64
An eight-and-
Answer
D. Posterior bitewing examination at 12 – 24 month intervals
160/2025 14 A
65
A 7-year-old boy has reported with amber coloured teeth showing attrition and fractured
enamel and classic shell teeth appearance on radiographs. Diagnose the condition :
Answer
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta II
66
The best method of caries management in a very young and uncooperative child
presenting with multiple teeth with dentinal caries but with no signs and symptoms of
pulpal inflammation is :
Answer
B. Non restorative caries control by SDF application
67
Which of the following statements is/are wrong about severe tongue thrusting habit?
(i) Abnormal masseteric activity and temporalis contraction can be seen
(ii) Increased lower anterior facial height and anterior open bite
(iii) Can be managed by three alarm system
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii) are wrong
68
As per International Association of Dental Traumatology 2020 guidelines, the endodontic
treatment guidelines for an avulsed permanent tooth with an open apex that was not
stored in a physiologic or osmolality-based storage media and with an extra oral dry time
longer than 60 minutes is :
Answer
B. Replant the tooth, passive and flexible splinting for 2 weeks, pulp
revascularization/apexification or root canal treatment as soon as pulp
necrosis or infection is identified during follow up.
69
When condyle is translated forward, which structure retracts the disc posteriorly?
Answer
B. Superior retrodiscal lamina
70
Thermoluminescent Dosimeter (TLDS) contains :
Answer
C. Lithium fluorides
71
Approach to decipher three dimensional relationship by radiography :
Answer
C. Both of the above
72
Adherent white plaque that resembles “Cottage Cheese” appearance in oral mucosa :
Answer
C. Thrush
73
SOAP note concept was initially proposed by Dr. Lawrence Weed in 1960s. Which of the
following is a component of SOAP note?
Answer
C. Plan
74
Self rectified dental X-ray machines have :
Answer
A. Alternating current X-ray generation Power Supply
75
The Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC) is considered a landmark in
global public health governance because it :
Answer
B. introduces binding international legal obligations to reduce tobacco demand
and supply
76
During a study on tobacco and oral cancer, age was found to be associated with both
smoking and cancer. Which of the following best describes age in this context?
Answer
A. Confounder
77
A Cohort study investigated cholera among villagers drinking treated vs. untreated
water. Out of 500 people drinking untreated water, 50 developed cholera; among 500
drinking treated water, 10 developed cholera. What is the Relative Risk (RR)?
Answer
C. 5.0
78
Which vector-borne disease is most commonly linked to poor housing and overcrowding?
Answer
D. Tuberculosis
79
Which study design is best suited to estimate the incidence of dental caries in a
population over time?
Answer
A. Prospective cohort
80
The critical period for susceptibility to dental fluorosis is :
Answer
C. During enamel formation of permanent teeth
81
Application of silver diamine fluoride on a carious deciduous tooth for the purpose of
arresting caries is best described as which level of prevention of dental caries?
Answer
C. Secondary prevention
82
Which fibers have the tendency to recreate as alveolar bone destruction progresses in
periodontitis?
Answer
D. Transseptal group of fibers
83
“Rotten apple smell” type of breath is observed in :
Answer
A. Diabetes mellitus
84
Which microorganism belong to the RED group of Sub-gingival microbial complexes?
Answer
C. P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, T. denticola
85
Which of the following is/are True for Bacterial Replacement Therapy?
(i) Produces minimal effect on immune response
(ii) Bacteria are incorporated in toothpastes or dietary supplements
(iii) Produces long-term and dramatic change in periodontal microbiota
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
86
Which of the following periodontal graft material becomes coated with hydroxyl-
carbonate apatite when it comes in contact with tissue fluids?
Answer
B. Bioactive glass
87
Which of the following statements are True for Trauma from occlusion?
(i) Funnel-shaped widening of the crestal portion of periodontal ligament
(ii) Increased tooth mobility
(iii) Initiates gingivitis
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
88
A 14-week-old, otherwise healthy male infant, weighing 5.5 kg, is scheduled for an
elective unilateral cleft lip repair (Millard rotation-advancement technique). The surgical
team anticipates the procedure will last approximately 90 minutes and require the
surgeon to work extensively around the oral cavity, lips and philtrum. Which of the
following is the most appropriate combination of tube size, type and orientation for
securing the airway in this specific clinical context?
Answer
B. 3.5 mm uncuffed South Facing RAE (Ring-Adair-Elwyn) Endotracheal tube,
orally placed.
89
A 45-year-old male patient reports developing facial flushing and beads of sweat over his
left cheek and temporal area immediately after he starts chewing or tastes food. This
condition developed three months following a parotidectomy and is strongly suggestive of
Frey’s Syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic procedures is the most definitive and
objective method used to confirm and precisely map the anatomical extent of this
condition?
Answer
C. Minor startch-iodine test
90
A 25-year-old male has reported with a complaint of a protruding chin and difficulty in
biting food with incisors. Intraoral examination shows a reverse overjet of 5mm with a
normal overbite. He also exhibits a gummy smile and mild flattening of the nasolabial
region. Cephalometric analysis shows SNA-78°, SNB-84°, FMA-30°. Upper incisor to SN
100°. The most appropriate surgical treatment to address these dentofacial deformities
to achieve a stable class I occlusion would be :
Answer
A. Lefort 1 Maxillary Advancement and Impaction combined with BSSO
Mandibular Setback
91
You have been monitoring a patient for the past 4 months for recovery of nerve function
following iatrogenic lingual nerve injury after third molar surgery. You observe that the
patient has a painful tingling response to crude stimuli. This is suggestive of a
diagnosis of :
Answer
D. Hyperpathia
160/2025 20 A
92
A 60-year-old female patient, with a history of an uncontrolled odontogenic infection in
the maxillary posterior region, presents to the dental department. She reports the
sudden onset of a severe, unilateral headache and pain localized behind her left eye.
Which of the following is the earliest, localized neurological deficit typically observed
that strongly indicates the infection has progressed to involve the cavernous sinus?
Answer
C. Medial squint of the left eye
93
Which of these cardiac conditions require prophylactic antibiotics prior to oral surgery to
prevent infective endocarditis?
Answer
A. Tricuspid Atresia
94
Cephalosporins are prescribed for odontogenic infections involving the fascial spaces.
The main difference between the antibiotics ‘cefazolin’ and ‘ceftriaxone’ is the :
Answer
C. Increased activity of ceftriaxone against gram negative organisms in
comparison to cefazolin
95
Tissue conditioners used for treatment of traumatized denture-bearing mucosa should
generally be replaced :
Answer
B. Every 3 to 7 days, depending on oral conditions
96
The carborundum stripping technique for occlusal equilibration in removable
prosthodontics is primarily employed for :
Answer
C. Non-anatomic teeth
97
In removable partial dentures (RPD), tissue stops are primarily incorporated to :
Answer
C. Prevent framework distortion
98
Stress breakers in distal extension RPDs primarily permit :
Answer
B. Vertical movement
99
A canine replacement bridge is considered biomechanically complex primarily because :
Answer
B. The canine often lies outside the interabutment axis
100
A half-moon fracture of the porcelain jacket crown is most commonly caused by :
Answer
B. Occluding opposite teeth on the cervical fifth of the lingual surface
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