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Kerala PSC Dental Hygienist Grade II – Medical Education Previous Question Paper – 042/2023/OL

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Post NameDental Hygienist Grade II - Medical Education
Question Paper Code042/2023/OL
Category Code205/2020
Date of Test26 May 2023
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Repeated exposure of teeth to gastric contents may result in which of the following conditions ?
Answer
C. Erosion
2
The production of platelets is known as
Answer
A. Thrombopoiesis
3
Cell responsible for production of enamel
Answer
B. Ameloblast
4
The most common cells in periodontal ligament are
Answer
B. Fibroblasts
5
The increase in thickness of cementum with aging is greater
Answer
B. Apically
6
The normal pH of saliva
Answer
C. 7.5
7
The basket cells are also known as
Answer
A. Myoepithelial cells
8
The functions of saliva include the following except
Answer
C. Digestion of proteins
9
The dental pulp is derived from
Answer
A. Dental papilla
10
Pericytes are found
Answer
B. Around capillaries of pulp
11
Alveolar ridge in a new born is known as
Answer
A. Gum pads
12
Primate space is seen
Answer
D. Distal to mandibular canine and mesial to maxillary canine
13
Movement only in the upper compartment of temporomandibular joint takes place in which of the following motions of the mandible ?
Answer
D. Protrusion
14
Morphology of crown of the tooth is determined at which of the following stages of tooth development ?
Answer
C. Early bell stage
15
Which one of the following is not a terminal branch of facial nerve ?
Answer
C. Lingual
16
Which one of the following is not a branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve ?
Answer
D. Lingual nerve
17
Which of the following is not a muscle of mastication ?
Answer
B. Buccinator
18
Major vein draining the face
Answer
A. Facial vein
19
Von E bners glands open into which papilla ?
Answer
C. Circumvallate
20
All of the following is lined by stratified squamous epithelium except
Answer
C. Roof of the soft palate
21
In drug-receptor interaction, an agent which prevents the action of an agonist on a receptor or the subsequent response, but does not have any effect of its own is referred to as
Answer
B. Antagonist
22
Pattern of compulsive drug use characterised by overwhelming involvement with use of drug is referred to as
Answer
A. Drug addiction
23
Which of the following statement about antibiotic use in dentistry is correct ?
Answer
A. Antibiotics can be used for oral infections where there is evidence of systemic involvement like fever or lymphadenopathy
24
Which of the following are possible side effects of oral use of Non Steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) ?
Answer
D. All of the above
25
The technique of local anaesthetic injection where the small terminal nerve endings in the area of dental treatment are flooded with local anaesthetic solution is referred as
Answer
B. Infiltration anaesthesia
26
Which of the following statements about administration of Local Anaesthesia (LA) is not true ?
Answer
D. The use of local anaesthetic with adrenaline is safe compared to that without adrenaline in patients with severe hypertension
27
Which of the following is an anti-Herpes virus drug ?
Answer
A. Acyclovir
28
Which among the following is anti plaque agent used in dentifrice ?
Answer
C. Triclosan
29
Which of the following is a topical anti fungal drug ?
Answer
B. Clotrimazole
30
Which of the following statements about opioid analgesics is incorrect ?
Answer
D. Naloxone is a pure opioid agonist
31
Which of the following vitamins plays a key role in blood coagulation ?
Answer
B. Vitamin K
32
The pathological chronic localised loss of dental hard tissue that is chemically etched away from tooth surface by acids and/or chelation without bacterial environment is referred to as
Answer
A. Erosion
33
Which of the following statements regarding diet modification advice for preventing dental carries is true ?
Answer
C. Food items requiring more time of active chewing reduces incidence of dental caries and should be encouraged
34
The following are functions of fats in our body
Answer
B. Energy source and maintenance of cell membranes
35
Iron deficiency anemia can cause
Answer
D. All the above
36
Which of the following is a micronutrient ?
Answer
C. Vitamins
37
Beri-beri occurs due to deficiency of
Answer
A. Thiamine
38
Antioxidants help to
Answer
B. Counter the effects of reactive oxygen species
39
Which of the following has obtundent action ?
Answer
C. Silver nitrate
40
Extensive first pass metabolism of a drug will result in
Answer
A. Diminished therapeutic response
41
Dental union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred to as
Answer
D. Fusion
42
The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries
Answer
B. Sucrose
43
Zone of greatest demineralization noticed in which zone of enamel caries
Answer
C. Body of the lesion
44
Pathologic loss of enamel and dentin caused by biomechanical loading forces
Answer
D. Abfraction
45
Mucocutaneous patch seen in which stage of syphilis ?
Answer
B. Secondary syphilis
46
Hensen disease is
Answer
A. Leprosy
47
Ghons focus is associated with
Answer
D. Tuberculosis
48
Hallmark of tuberculous inflammation are all except
Answer
D. Liquifactive necrosis
49
Thrush refers to
Answer
B. Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
50
A union of the root of adjacent teeth through the cementum is referred to as
Answer
A. Concrescence
51
Asteroid bodies are seen in
Answer
B. Sarcoidosis
52
Dystrophic calcification are calcification seen in
Answer
D. Dead tissue
53
Physiologic programmed cell death is termed as
Answer
A. Apoptosis
54
Gangrene is the death of a part occupied by
Answer
B. Putrefaction
55
The process by which red blood cells move out of vessels through widened inter endothelial junction is referred to as
Answer
B. Diapedesis
56
Features which is absent in triple response of lewis experiment
Answer
D. Rubor
57
Which of the following is not a plasma derived mediators of inflammation ?
Answer
D. Vasoactive amine
58
Which of the following is not a fungal infection ?
Answer
A. Actinomycosis
59
The increase in the size of individual cell is referred as
Answer
A. Hypertrophy
60
Malignant tumour of epithelial origin is
Answer
A. Carcinoma
61
Wound healing is affected by which of the following condition ?
Answer
A. Diabetes
62
The chief ingredient of PerioChipis
Answer
D. Chlorhexidine
63
Bass technique of brushing involves
Answer
B. Side to side movement
64
The major portion of the organic matrix of cementum is composed of
Answer
B. Type I and Type III collagen
65
The film composed of glycoproteins formed on the surface of teeth within minutes of cleaning is known as
Answer
D. Tooth pellicle
66
The drawback of power driven instruments for scaling is
Answer
D. All the above
67
Which of the following instruments are most preferred for subgingival scaling ?
Answer
C. Curettes
68
Which of the following is not a periodontal probe ?
Answer
B. Briault probe
69
Initially formed calculus consists of mainly
Answer
A. Octocalcium phosphate
70
The clinical feature of xerostomia is
Answer
B. Decreased salivary flow
71
The chief difference between dental stone and dental plaster is
Answer
C. Shape and size of particles
72
Most commonly used retarder in gypsum is
Answer
C. Citrates
73
Delayed expansion of Dental Amalgams is caused by
Answer
B. Moisture contamination
74
Platinum is added to gold foil (direct filling gold) to
Answer
A. Increase hardness and wear resistance
75
10% polyacrylic acid conditioner is used during GIC restoration
Answer
B. To remove smear layer
76
The term which indicates annealing of direct filling gold is ?
Answer
D. Desorption
77
For preventing porosity in self-cure acrylic resin, curing should be carried out under
Answer
D. Vacuum pressure
78
The American Dental Association (ADA) specification number for dental amalgam is
Answer
A. ADA specification No. 1
79
The function of coupling agent in a restorative resin is for
Answer
C. Bonding between filler and resin
80
The setting time of dental materials is measured by which of the following test ?
Answer
D. Vicat needle test
81
The need that is defined by the professionals based upon an assessment against an agreed set of criteria is known as
Answer
C. Normative need
82
The criteria for a public health problem includes all except
Answer
A. Incidence of the condition
83
Modified Kuppuswamy scale for socioeconomic status includes all except
Answer
D. Income of head
84
Determining the cost effectiveness of a community dental program is most similar to what element of the individual patient care program ?
Answer
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of treatment
85
All of the following are examples of primary prevention except
Answer
D. Remineralization of dental caries
86
What are the three options to community water fluoridation that provide systemic fluoride ?
Answer
B. School water, salt and milk fluoridation
87
All are cariogenic except
Answer
D. Intrinsic sugars
88
Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance and relapse are components of which of the following theories or models ?
Answer
B. Stages of change model
89
The concept which views health as 'absence from disease' is
Answer
D. Biomedical concept
90
An antiplaque agent exhibiting good retentive property possesses
Answer
A. Substantivity
91
Reducing the size of X-ray beam is achieved by
Answer
B. Collimation
92
Civil laws include all except
Answer
D. Administrative law
93
The dentist's failure to refer the patient for a biopsy violates which of the following ethical principles ?
Answer
B. Beneficence
94
A dentist who is keeping implied or explicit promises, faithfulness to duty and obligation is upholding the principle of ethics known as
Answer
B. Fidelity
95
The age at/above which an obtained consent is said to be valid
Answer
B. 18 years
96
Which principle of ethics was proposed by the Nuremberg Code ?
Answer
A. Informed consent
97
Withholding information or making choices for the patient dictates
Answer
C. Paternalism
98
People who are practicing dentistry as a sole means of living without qualifications are registered under
Answer
B. Part B
99
Which of these is not an important part of consent ?
Answer
B. Implementation
100
Penny test is used to check
Answer
A. Darkroom safe lighting

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