| Post Name | Deputy Accounts Manager - Kerala Water Authority |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 097/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 371/2024 |
| Date of Test | 21 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Consider the following statements on IFRS. You are requested to identify the wrong one
Answer
A. It contains only those standards issued by IASB
2
Consider the statements on The National Financial Reporting Authority. Identify the statement that is correct
Answer
D. It is to recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government
3
Consider the following statements on 'Ind AS'. Identify the statement that is wrong
Answer
B. Indian's approach in 'Ind AS' is to adopt IFRS
4
Mandatory application of 'Ind AS' started in India, from which date?
Answer
D. 1st April 2016
5
Consider the following statements on Right and Bonus issue of shares as per company's Act 2013. Then select appropriate answer from the options statements given below Statement 1 : Issue of further capital should be oļ¬ered to existing share holders as a right. It is applicable only to equity shares holders Statement 2 : The bonus shares shall not be issued in lieu of dividend
Answer
A. Both the statements are correct
6
Consider the following statements on the preparation of Financial Statements by an Indian company. Identify the statement that is wrong.
Answer
C. Figures shown in the Financial Statements should not be rounded oļ¬
7
Consider the following statements on 'Cash Flows Statement'. Identify the wrong statement.
Answer
B. Interest on deposits comes under the heading 'cash ļ¬ows from ļ¬nancial activities'
8
In the case of 'Independent Branch Accounting', the expenses inquired by the Head oļ¬ce on behalf of the branch
Answer
C. is debited to the Branch A/c maintained by the Head oļ¬ce
9
Consider the following statements on Accounting for Hire Purchase. Identify the wrong one
Answer
D. In all case, the Hirer is not responsible for the loss goods
10
Consider the following statements on Accounts from incomplete records. Identify the statement that is wrong.
Answer
B. Total debtors account is aļ¬ected with the provision for bad and doubtful debtors
11
Following statements are on 'Average Clause' in Insurance accounting. You are requested to identify the statement that best explain its meaning.
Answer
C. It is a method of calculating the claim amount in General (Property) Insurance were the property is under insured
12
Consider the following statements on 'Fair Value' as per Accounting Standard that deals with Accounting for Investments. Identify the wrong statement.
Answer
A. It is the amount for which an asset could be exchanged between a knowledgeable and willing buyer and a seller.
13
Premium on issue of debentures is
Answer
B. Capital proļ¬t
14
Debentures issued as ___________ bears no interest.
Answer
A. Collateral security
15
Voluntary return of shares by shareholders to the company for cancellation is called
Answer
C. Surrender of shares
16
The allotment on shares to be completed within __________ days of the issue of prospectus
Answer
D. 120
17
Application for approval of name of company is to be made to
Answer
B. Registrar of companies
18
Which of the following statements are false? Indicate the correct code : (A) No company has to ļ¬le any prescribed declaration before commencement of business (B) A company can ratify the contract entered into by promoters with third parties on behalf of the company before its formation (C) The date mentioned in the certiļ¬cate for commencement of business is taken as date of birth of a public company (D) A private company has to ļ¬le a settlement in lieu of prospectus with the registrar Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. B, C and D only
19
The annual general meeting can be held on a National Holiday.
Answer
B. No
20
The rate of interest liable to be payable by a company during the period for which default in payment of dividend continues
Answer
A. 18
21
The auditor resigned from the company shall ļ¬le within a period of __________ from the date of resignation, a statement in the form ___________
Answer
B. 30 days, ADT-3
22
Premium received on issue of shares cannot be utilised for the
Answer
D. Distribution of dividend
23
The following facts are related to treatment of Normal Loss, Abnormal Loss and Abnormal gain in Process Accounts. Which among the following statements are complete and correct in respect of recognizing and recording Normal Loss, Abnormal Loss and Abnormal Gain in Process Accounts? I. If the abnormal loss has got any scarp value, it should be credited to abnormal loss account and balance is written oļ¬ to costing proļ¬t and loss account. II. Normal loss can be estimated in advance on the basis of past experience or available data III. Abnormal gain appears as a Credit entry in the process account, where as a loss appears as a Debit entry in the account IV. Normal losses are generally valued at their disposal values
Answer
A. I and II only
24
The peculiar characteristics of Joint Product and Bye-products are outlined below. Which among the following describe(s) the characteristic (s) of joint product? I. Produced concurrently but may not share the exact same production process II. Each product has its own independent identity and can be sold separately III. The value of a product is independent of the quantities of other product(s) IV. Products are not easily separable or marketable V. The economic importance of products diļ¬ers signiļ¬cantly
Answer
B. II and III only
25
The following statements are related to assessment of characteristics, utility of Activity Based Costing in business decision making. You are required to identify correct statement(s) that highlight characteristic or utility of ABC in decision making. I. Activity Based Costing (ABC) emphasizes the importance of linking indirect costs to activity in the cost allocation exercise II. Activity Based Costing (ABC) plays a vital role in long range plans of companies to develop a competitive cost advantage III. The system assumes that demand for products are responsible for the incurrence of costs that creates demand for activities IV. ABC is costing system suitable when consumption of overhead resource is driven primarily by volume V. ABC system of costing is most suitable when there is great diversity in the product range
Answer
D. I, II and V only
26
The following statements are related to computation of proļ¬t on uncompleted contract. Which of the following statement (s) is/are incorrect? I. Generally if the work completed is less than 25 per cent of the total work, no proļ¬t shall be transferred to the proļ¬t and loss account II. If the work is more than 1/4th complete but less than 1/2, 1/3 rd of the notional proļ¬ts are taken III. If the work is 1/2 or more is completed, 2/3rd of notional proļ¬ts is transferred to Proļ¬t and Loss account IV. Proļ¬t to be transferred when work is complete by 50 per cent or more than 50 per cent is computed as Notional proļ¬t Ć 2/3 Ć Cash received/Contract price
Answer
Question Cancelled
27
Which of the following fact (s) correctly describe job order costing? I. The system is useful in quoting cost plus contract II. The system is least expensive and required little clerical work III. Job costing is essentially a historical costing that ascertains cost of a job/product after it has been manufactured IV. The system won't be eļ¬ective in cost control unless used with standard costing
Answer
B. I, III and IV only
28
You are given attributes to Fixed Budget and Flexible Budget. You are required to identify attributes that correctly describes Fixed Budget [Part A] and Flexible Budget [Part B] Code Fixed Budget [Part A] Flexible Budget [Part B] I. Provides for no adjustments in the A. When volume of output diļ¬ers comparison of budgeted ļ¬gures as a result of actual and budgeted performance can't be done change in cost due to change in accurately level of activity II. Series of budgets are prepared at B. Prescribed when the business is new and it is diļ¬erent levels of activity diļ¬cult to foresee the demand III. Cost are classiļ¬ed according to C. Inappropriate in assessing the performance of nature and variability department heads IV. Helpful in price ļ¬xation and for D. Useful only when the actual level of activity sending quotations corresponds to the budgeted level of activity
Answer
A. Fixed Budget [Part A] Flexible Budget [Part B] I only B only
29
The following statements are related to preparation of cost sheet. You are required to identify the correct statement (s) on attributes or preparation of cost sheet. I. Cost sheet is prepared on actual and estimated ļ¬gure expenses II. Property tax on factory building is excluded in preparation of cost sheet III. Overtime premium paid to workers from part of Prime cost IV. For the purpose of preparation of cost sheet, cost is classiļ¬ed based on function V. Audit fee paid to cost auditor don't from part of cost sheet
Answer
A. only I and IV are correct
30
You are given a set of combinations of methods of Time Booking and Time Keeping as to management and ascertainment of employee costs. You are required to identify the correct set of combination of methods of Time Booking and Time as tabled below. Code Methods of Time Booking Methods of Time Keeping I Clock card, Disc Method Job Ticket, Labour Cost card II Clock card, Labour cost card Disc Method, Job Ticket III Job Ticket, Disc Method Clock card, Labout Cost Card IV Job Ticket, Labour Cost card Clock card, Disc Method
Answer
D. Only IV is correct combination
31
In Service costing, the costs may be classiļ¬ed into three categories viz Standing Charges (Fixed costs), Variable Costs (Running Costs) and Maintenance Charges (Semi Variable costs). Which of the following combinations of service cost is correct? I Garage Rent VI Salaries of garage staļ¬ II Petrol/Diesel VII Oil & Grease III Repairs & Renewals VIII Cost of Tyre IV Insurance Premium IX Painting & Servicing V Handling charges X Administration overhead combinations Standing Charges Running Costs Maintenance Charges A VIII, VI, X II, III, VII I, IV, V, VIII, IX B I, IV, VII II, X, V, VI III, VIII, IX C I, IV, X II, VII, V III, VI, VIII, IX D VI, X, I, VIII VII, IX, III II, IV, V
Answer
C. Combination C is only Correct
32
You are given with following details of XYZ Ltd. Calculate rate of pay variance. No. of men employed Standard-100 Actual-95 No of working days in a month Standard-25 Actual-24 Average wages per man per month Standard-Rs. 250 Actual-Rs. 216
Answer
C. Rs. 2,280 Favourable
33
You are required to calculate Number of units to be sold to earn a net income of 10 per cent of sales from the give data. Selling price per unit Rs. 50 Variable manufacturing cost per unit Rs. 20 Variable selling cost per unit Rs. 10 Fixed cost Rs. 2,25,000
Answer
B. 15000 units
34
Following table outlines the characteristic of diļ¬erent Capacity Levels. You are required to match the attribute to the type of capacity enlisted as Normal Capacity, Actual Capacity and Installed Capacity. Choice Attributes of capacity Levels I Highest achievable capacity under the inļ¬uence of minor, unavoidable interruptions. II Maximum level of output that a company can sustain over a set period of time III Key factor in measuring a company's capacity utilization Rate IV Capacity for which plant is designed to operate V Measured in terms of volume of production achieved or service provided in a speciļ¬c period VI Capacity signiļ¬cant for designing plant mechanically but not for cost considerations
Answer
B. Actual Capacity Installed Capacity Normal Capacity I, V IV, VI II, III
35
Consider the following statements: (i) Municipal valuation, fair rent, and standard rent are used to determine the annual value. (ii) The actual rent received or receivable is ignored while computing annual value. (iii) Unrealized rent can be deducted subject to Rule 4 of Income Tax Rules. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
36
Which of the following statements are correct regarding inter-head set- oļ¬ of losses (Section 71)? (i) Speculation loss can be set oļ¬ only against speculation proļ¬t. (ii) Business loss cannot be set oļ¬ against salary income. (iii) Long-term capital loss can be set oļ¬ against short-term capital gain.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
37
Which of the following statements are true? (i) Return is compulsory if aggregate TDS/TCS exceeds Rs. 5,000 during the previous year. (ii) Return is compulsory if electricity bill payment exceeds Rs. 1 lakh in a year (iii) Return is compulsory if foreign travel expenditure exceeds Rs. 2 lakh
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
38
Consider the following statements : (i) Foreign income is taxable for a resident and ordinarily resident, even if received outside India. (ii) Resident but not ordinarily resident is taxable on foreign income only if it is from a business controlled in or profession set up in India (iii) A non-resident is taxed only on income that is received or accrues in India. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
39
Which of the following statements regarding deduction under Section 80D (medical insurance) is correct? (i) An individual can claim up to Rs. 25,000 for premium paid for self, spouse, and dependent children. (ii) Deduction for preventive health check-up is limited to Rs. 10,000, paid in cash or otherwise. (iii) An additional Rs. 25,000 is allowed for insurance of parents who are below 60 years.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
40
Consider the following statements: (i) Income from any business connection in India is deemed to accrue in India. (ii) Royalty received from the Government is deemed to accrue in India. (iii) Dividend paid by an Indian company outside India is not taxable in India. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
41
Consider the following statements about capital assets under Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act : (i) Capital asset includes property of any kind, whether connected with business or not, including land, buildings, goodwill, shares and machinery. (ii) Agricultural land situated within 8 km of a municipality with population over 10,000 is treated as a capital asset. (iii) Furniture, can and refrigerator held for personal use are excluded from the deļ¬nition of capital asset. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
42
Consider the following statements : (i) If a person is leaving India with no intention to return, they may be taxed in the same year. (ii) Income from a non-resident's shipping business is taxed in the previous year itself. (iii) If a business is discontinued, income cannot be assessed until the following assessment year. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
43
Consider the following three statements regarding salary income under the Income Tax Act : (i) Any compensation due to or received by an employee from an employer in connection with termination of employment is taxable as proļ¬ts in lieu of salary. (ii) Amount received from unrecognised provident fund to the extent of employer's contribution and interest thereon is taxable under salary income. (iii) Standard deduction (under new tax regime) for AY 2025-26 under Section 16(ia) is Rs. 75,000 Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
44
Identify the correct statements about the consequences : of non- payment or underpayment of advance tax : (i) No interest is payable if the shortfall is less than Rs. 1,000. (ii) Interest is payable under Section 234B for shortfall in advance tax. (iii) Interest under Section 234C applies for deferment of advance tax instalments.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
45
Which of the following statements regarding deductions from 'income from other sources' is correct? (i) Depreciation can be claimed on machinery and furniture used to earn income. (ii) Family pension received by heirs is fully exempt from tax. (iii) Interest on compensation received is deductible by 50%
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
46
Which of the following statements are correct regarding revised returns? (i) A return once revised cannot be revised again. (ii) A revised return can be ļ¬led if the original return was ļ¬led under section 139(1) or belated return ļ¬led under section 139(4) (iii) A revised return can be ļ¬led before 31st December of the relevant assessment or before completion of the assessment, whichever is earlier.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
47
Which of the following statements are TRUE with regard to the Audit Strategy? (i) It sets the scope, approach, objectives and direction of the audit (ii) Audit strategy is framed as a second step subsequent to the preparation of audit plan and audit programme (iii) It provides a framework for the development of detailed Audit Plan containing the steps and procedures of audit work.
Answer
C. Statements (i) and (iii) alone are true
48
Identify the WRONG statement from the following (i) Audit strategy is a high level plan that sets the stage for audit whereas the audit plan provides a roadmap for the execution of audit strategy (ii) Audit strategy speaks about the ''what'' and ''why'' of the audit while the Audit plan illustrates ''how'' and ''when'' of the audit (iii) Audit strategy provides overall framework whereas audit plan contains procedures, steps and methodologies to execute the audit strategy.
Answer
D. None of the above statements are wrong
49
Identify the TRUE statements from the following : (i) Preparing the Audit Programme, Audit Strategy and Audit Plan are the correct sequence of audit planning process (ii) Audit Programme ļ¬xes the duties and responsibility of each audit staļ¬ involved in the audit work (iii) Audit Programme prepared well in advance in a standardised format covering all possible audit activities and procedures are called as the Flexible or Progressive Audit Programme.
Answer
B. Statement (ii) alone is true
50
Which of the following are FALSE with regard to the audit evidence? (i) Auditors are not supposed to rely on the audit evidence to form an opinion on the true and fair view of the state of aļ¬airs (ii) Purchase invoices from the suppliers and the account balance conļ¬rmation certiļ¬cate from banks are examples of internal audit evidence (iii) Inspection, Inquiry, Observation, External Conļ¬rmation, etc., are the audit procedures employed for collecting audit evidence
Answer
A. Statements (i) and (ii) alone are false
51
Which of the following statements are CORRECT? (i) Audit sampling refers to the process of taking the entire population of items and transactions for the purpose of collecting audit evidence and forming audit opinion (ii) Audit sampling will enable the auditors in saving time and eļ¬ort in the process of collecting audit evidence and audit opinion (iii) Statistical sampling method adopted by the auditor requires random selection of sample units wherein each sample units will get equal chance of being selected as sample
Answer
C. Statements (ii) and (iii) alone are correct
52
Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to the audit risk? (i) Audit Risk refers to a situation where the auditor is not getting enough audit assignments and thereby not making enough income (ii) Audit risk is a function of material misstatement of information by the company and the detection risk caused by the auditor (failure to detect misstatements in the audit process) (iii) The detection risk caused by the auditor happens when the samples drawn for test checking are non-representative of the population.
Answer
B. Statements (ii) and (iii) alone are true
53
Which of the following statements are WRONG with respect to the internal control system? (i) Internal control system is only a part of the internal check (ii) Review of internal control system will enable the auditor to know the areas where the control is weak and are prone to material misstatement of information (iii) Internal control system is used as a mechanism to commit errors and frauds in the process of maintaining books and records
Answer
C. Statements (i) and (iii) alone are wrong
54
Which of the following statements are TRUE with regard to the audit in automated environment? (i) Auditor should see the nature and level of access control, authentication and security features of IT systems in the company (ii) Auditor should ensure the tamper proof mechanism of audit trail functionality of the IT system (iii) CAAT (Computer Assisted Auditing Techniques) are used by the company's accounting staļ¬ in their daily accounting work in an IT based accounting environment
Answer
A. Statements (i) and (ii) alone are true
55
Find the WRONG statement from the following : (i) Internal Check means a system where the work done by one employee is automatically veriļ¬ed by another employee (ii) Internal Control System will usually consists of the internal check system and the internal audit mechanism in a company (iii) Internal audit is a control measure undertaken by the statutory auditor to assess the performance of audit staļ¬
Answer
D. Statement (iii) alone is wrong
56
Which of the following statements are FALSE with regard to the appointment of auditor in a company? (i) For a newly incorporated company, the ļ¬rst auditor of the company will be appointed by the Board of Directors and will hold oļ¬ce till the conclusion of annual general meeting. (ii) An auditor appointed in the ļ¬rst annual general meeting will hold oļ¬ce till the conclusion of eighth annual general meeting (iii) A body corporate can be appointed as an external auditor of a company for a consecutive period of 15 years
Answer
B. Statements (ii) and (iii) alone are false
57
Identify the CORRECT statements from the following with respect to the audit report (i) A statutory auditor will report to the Board of Directors of the company and is accountable to the Board of Directors (ii) If the audit is undertaken by a ļ¬rm of auditors, the audit report is required to be signed by all the members of audit ļ¬rm (iii) Audit report normally contain an opinion about the true and fair view of the state of aļ¬airs of the company
Answer
C. Statement (iii) alone is correct
58
Find the WRONG statements related to the types of audit reports (i) A clean audit report is one in which the auditor express his dissatisfaction on certain matters and are not adequately clariļ¬ed by the company (ii) A qualiļ¬ed audit report will exhibit a true and fare view of state of aļ¬airs and the auditor is satisļ¬ed with suļ¬cient audit evidence for that (iii) A disclaimer report indicate that the auditor is unable to obtain suļ¬cient audit evidence to form an opinion on the true and fair view of state of aļ¬airs and makes disclaimer of opinion
Answer
A. Statements (i) and (ii) alone are wrong
59
Equity shares of CEAT Ltd. are quoted in the market at Rs. 17. The dividend expected a year hence is Rs. 1.50. The expected rate of dividend growth is 8%. The cost of equity capital to the company is
Answer
D. 16.82%
60
Which of the following is not a feature of an optimal capital structure?
Answer
D. The company should make minimum use of leverage at a minimum cost
61
Calculate combined leverage from the following : Fixed cost - 40000, Variable cost - 140000, Sales - 200000, Interest on loan @ 10 percent on a loan of Rs. 100000.
Answer
C. 6
62
The net cash inļ¬ows of the project and their present values are as follows : Year Net cash inļ¬ow PVIF at 12% PV of cash inļ¬ow 1 5100 0.893 4554 2 5100 0.797 4065 3 5100 0.712 3631 4 7100 0.636 4516 The initial investment in the project is Rs. 12,500. What is the NPV of the project?
Answer
B. 4266
63
Debt to Total Assets of a ļ¬rm is 0.2. The Debt to Equity ratio would be :
Answer
B. 0.25
64
Ratio which reļ¬ects managerial eļ¬ciency in handling assets is
Answer
A. Turnover ratio
65
While calculating cash ļ¬ow from operating activities, which will be deducted?
Answer
B. Increase in Debtors
66
Two mutually exclusive projects with diļ¬erent economic lives can be compared on the basis of
Answer
D. Equivalent Annuity value
67
Which combination is generally good for a company?
Answer
C. High OL, Low FL
68
Which of the following is incorrect for value of the ļ¬rm under the Modigliani and Miller (MM) Model?
Answer
Question Cancelled
69
What does the term ''lead time'' refer to in inventory management?
Answer
B. Time between placing an order and receiving it
70
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Miller-Orr model?
Answer
C. It is a dynamic model that allows for random ļ¬uctuations in cash ļ¬ows
71
Assertion (A) : Strategy evaluation is concerned with determining the value of importance of a strategy. Reason (R) : Strategy evaluation throws light on the eļ¬ciency and eļ¬ectiveness of the strategy in achieving the anticipated results.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
72
The hard elements of 7S's include
Answer
B. Structure, Strategy and Systems
73
Assertion (A) : Strategy leadership is about how to most eļ¬ectively manage a company's strategy making process to create competitive advantage. Reason (R) : Strategy leadership is concerned with managing the strategy making process to increase the performance of a company, thereby increasing the value of the enterprise to its owners and shareholders.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
74
Describe the sequence of strategy implementation process
Answer
C. Diagnosis - Opinion available in implementation - Planning - Implementation - Learning and Control
75
Assertion (A) : Competitive environment means the environment in the industry and the market where the enterprise competes for its survival and growth. Reason (R) : A company is said to have a competitive advantage over its rivals when its proļ¬tability is greater than the average proļ¬tability and proļ¬t growth of other companies competing for the same set of customers.
Answer
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
76
Assertion (A) : Strategic Management is a process of managing the attainment of organizational mission. Reason (R) : Strategic Management comprises of decisions and actions leading to the formulation and implementation of strategies to achieve the objectives of the organization.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
77
From the following statement, state the False statement. (a) Statement I : Strategy implementation deals with the execution of the selected strategies. (b) Statement II : Strategy implementation is about taking the right course of action. (c) Statement III : Strategy implementation is the operational part of the strategic management (d) Statement IV : Strategy implementation can be performed before the formulation of strategies
Answer
D. Statement IV
78
Match List 'A' with the list 'B' and choose the correct answer from the following Sl.No. List 'A' Sl.No. List 'B' i Environmental Scanning a Organisations observe their internal environment ii Strategy Formulation b Leadership Implementation iii Strategy Implementation c SWOT Analysis iv Evaluation & Control d Measuring Performance
Answer
B. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
79
Match the following approaches to Implementation of Strategy Sl.No. Column A Sl.No. Column B 1 Commander approach a Bottom-up approach since it moves upward from the subordinates to the manager 2 Organisational change b Manager takes into account the knowledge and approach experience of his management team 3 Collaborative Approach c Extension of collaborative approach which includes the lower levels of the organization in the formulation and implementation of the strategy 4 Cultural Approach d Focuses on how to equip an organization to implement a strategy 5 Crescive Approach e Manager will determine the best strategy either alone or with the help of a group of experts
Answer
A. 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c, 5-a
80
Match the following models and tools used in the process of strategy evaluation and control Sl. No. Column A Sl.No. Column B 1 Value chain analysis a Ascertained by the amount of proļ¬t it earns in relation to the amount of investment 2 Benchmarking b Evaluating relationship between component parts of ļ¬nancial statements to obtain a better understanding of the performance and position of an organization 3 Return on investment c Analyse to identify and evaluate the competitive potential of resources and capabilities 4 Financial Ratio Analysis d Process of studying the performance of other ļ¬rms in the industry which are performing exceptionally well
Answer
C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
81
Which device allows you to enter data and instructions into a computer?
Answer
A. Input device
82
RAM is an example of which type of memory in computer
Answer
D. Primary Memory
83
What is the name given to huge computers with large computation speeds?
Answer
C. Supercomputer
84
What is an operating system?
Answer
D. All of the mentioned
85
The octal representation of the decimal 10 is
Answer
A. 12
86
What is the default ļ¬le extension for a Word document?
Answer
B. .docx
87
Which shortcut key is used to open a new document in Microsoft Word?
Answer
B. Ctrl + N
88
What is the purpose of the Filter feature in Excel?
Answer
C. To display only the data that meets certain criteria
89
How do you start a formula in Excel?
Answer
D. By typing =
90
From which of these menus can we access a Text Box, Picture, Chart etc.?
Answer
B. Insert
91
Which of the following statements are correct about class and object 1. A class deļ¬nes the structure and behaviour of objects. 2. A class must contain at least one object. 3. An object is a blueprint used to create classes. 4. Multiple objects can be created from a single class.
Answer
C. 1 and 4 only
92
What is the output of the following code? #include using namespace std; int main () { int k = 6; int m = ++k +k-- + k++; cout <
Answer
D. 20
93
You are creating a shared .NET library that must be reused in apps targeting Windows, Android, and WebAssembly platforms. Which type of .NET class library is most suitable?
Answer
D. .NET Standard class library
94
Write the output of this code Module Module 1 Sub Main ( ) Dim a As New Integer Dim b As Integer = 20 ChangeValues(a, b) Console. WriteLine (''a = '' & a & '', b = '' & b) End Sub Sub ChangeValues(ByRef x As Integer, ByVal y As Integer) x=y Dim z As Integer = 40 x=z End Sub End Module
Answer
A. a =40, b = 20
95
In SQL, what happens when a foreign key constraint is violated due to the deletion of a referenced tuple, and the ON DELETE CASCADE clause is used?
Answer
B. The referencing tuple is also deleted
96
Which of the following SQL query/queries correctly retrieve the names of students and their department names?
Answer
D. Both (1) and (2)
97
Which SQL query returns each product name along with the total quantity sold and average amount per unit sold?
Answer
A. SELECT p.ProductName, SUM(s.Quantity) AS TotalQuantity, Sum(s.Amount) / SUM(s.Quantity) AS AvgAmountPerUnit FROM Sales s JOIN Products p ON s.ProductID = p.ProductID GROUP BY p.ProductName;
98
A web crawler is capable of processing various content formats, adjusting to changes in communication standards, and supporting the addition of new components with minimal structural changes. Which key architectural feature does this behaviour highlight?
Answer
C. Extensibility
99
Which of the following HTML
Answer
A.
100
In a form, if the onblur event is applied to a credit card number input for validation, what potential issue might arise if it is the only validation method used?
Answer
C. Updates made by the user in real-time might not be caught
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