| Post Name | Deputy Manager (Fertilizer) |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala State Co- Operative Rubber Marketing Federation Limited (RUBBERMARK) |
| Question Paper Code | 116/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 467/2025 |
| Date of Test | 4 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Inventory Turnover Ratio is 8 times, Opening stock Rs. 40,000 and closing stock Rs. 60,000. Cost of goods sold equals:
Answer
D. Rs. 4,00,000
2
Match the following: List I List 2 a. AS 20 - 1. Property Plant and Equipment b. AS 13 - 2. Valuation of inventories c. AS 10 - 3. Accounting for investments d. AS 2 - 4. Earnings per share
Answer
C. a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2
3
A company pays dividend of Rs. 10 per share. The current market price per share is Rs. 125. Calculate cost of equity capital.
Answer
B. 8%
4
According to Walter's Model, if the internal rate of return (r) is greater than the cost of capital (k), the ļ¬rm should:
Answer
B. Retain all earnings
5
Standard quantity for actual output is 500 kg at Rs. 8 per kg. Actual quantity used is 550 kg. Material Usage Variance is:
Answer
A. Rs. 400 A
6
Choose the Incorrect Statement
Answer
C. Payback Period measures proļ¬tability accurately
7
The sum total of the discounted lifetime values of all customers of the ļ¬rm
Answer
A. Customer equity
8
Lifetime customer and Lifetime customer value is the central aim of ______________.
Answer
D. Customer Relationship Management
9
The factors that aļ¬ect buyers price sensitivity is/are i. Survival eļ¬ect ii. Unique Value eļ¬ect iii. Substitute Awareness eļ¬ect iv. Diļ¬cult Comparison eļ¬ect v. End-Beneļ¬t eļ¬ect vi. Sunk investment eļ¬ect vii. Markup eļ¬ect
Answer
C. Only (ii, iii, iv, v and vi)
10
Marketing Mix for Services consist of a. Product b. Price c. Promotion d. Place e. People f. Process g. Physical evidence
Answer
D. All of the above (a, b, c, d, e, f and g)
11
Statement I : Jury method is one of the commonly employed methods for sales forecasting Statement II : Extrapolation is also a projection/trend method
Answer
A. Both Statement I and II are correct
12
Channel partners who oļ¬er their services to competing makes are called _____________.
Answer
B. Non-exclusive channel partners
13
Which inventory technique classiļ¬ed items based on their importance and value?
Answer
C. ABC Analysis
14
The main objective of EOQ is to:
Answer
B. Minimize total inventory cost
15
Which quality management technique focuses on reducing defects to near zero?
Answer
C. Six Sigma
16
JIT stands for:
Answer
B. Just In Time
17
Which of the following is a function of supply chain management?
Answer
D. All of the above
18
SWOT analysis is used for:
Answer
B. Environmental scanning
19
Which model analyzes industry competition?
Answer
C. Porter's Five Forces
20
Vision and Mission are part of:
Answer
B. Strategic Management Process
21
A company introducing completely new product line is following:
Answer
B. Diversiļ¬cation strategy
22
PESTLE analysis includes:
Answer
D. All of the above
23
The GST threshold limit for services in normal category states is:
Answer
C. Rs. 20 lakh
24
Which foreign Assistance Programme is speciļ¬cally associated with the background of the Essential Commodities Act?
Answer
C. PL - 480
25
CCPA stands for:
Answer
A. Central Consumer Protection Authority
26
Predatory Pricing means:
Answer
B. Selling goods below cost to eliminate competitors
27
Which of the following Co-operative Societies is generally NOT eligible for deduction Under Section 80 P after the amendment?
Answer
C. Co-operative Bank
28
Matters relating to scheduled caste and scheduled Tribe Co-operative Societies are handled by:
Answer
C. Joint Registrar
29
Which of the following statements regarding leadership styles is incorrect?
Answer
D. Transactional leadership completely eliminates the need for supervision and performance monitoring
30
According to Tuckman's model, arrange the stages of group development in proper sequence: I. Storming II. Performing III. Forming IV. Norming V. Adjourning
Answer
A. III, I, IV, II, V
31
Consider the following statements regarding organizational culture: I. Organizational culture consists of shared values and beliefs. II. Strong organizational culture can inļ¬uence employee behaviour. III. Organizational culture is determined exclusively by written rules and procedures. IV. Organizational culture remains unchanged regardless of organizational experiences and external environment. Which statements are correct?
Answer
A. I and II only
32
Consider the following statements regarding motivation theories: I. Maslow proposed ļ¬ve levels of needs. II. Herzberg identiļ¬ed hygiene and motivator factors. III. McClelland emphasized achievement, aļ¬liation and power needs. IV. Alderfer developed ERG theory. Choose the correct answer:
Answer
D. I, II, III and IV
33
During an audit, one employee is found to authorize purchases, record transactions and process supplier payments. The auditor identiļ¬es this as a signiļ¬cant control weakness. The weakness primarily indicates failure of:
Answer
B. Segregation of duties
34
Which of the following best describes a Letter of Credit?
Answer
C. Documentary assurance of payment in trade transactions
35
Which of the following situations best illustrates commodity price risk?
Answer
B. Fluctuation in crude oil prices aļ¬ecting production cost
36
Which of the following is not a hedging instrument commonly used in risk management?
Answer
D. Contract Note
37
Which of the following best diļ¬erentiates an entrepreneur from a manager?
Answer
B. Entrepreneur assumes risk, manager primarily administers
38
Which component of a business plan primarily evaluates market viability?
Answer
B. Marketing analysis
39
Which phase of the project life cycle involves deļ¬ning scope and objectives?
Answer
B. Initiation
40
Which type of analytics answers the question: "What happened?"
Answer
C. Descriptive
41
Consider the following statements: i. Technical feasibility assesses whether technology exists to implement the idea. ii. Financial feasibility evaluates proļ¬tability and funding. iii. Market feasibility ignores customer demand. Which are correct?
Answer
A. i and ii only
42
In PERT, the expected time of an activity is calculated using:
Answer
C. Weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic and most likely times
43
Which of the following best describes an ERP system?
Answer
B. Integrated system connecting core business functions
44
Match the following: Model Description i. B2B a. Consumer to consumer transactions ii. B2C b. Business to consumer sales iii. C2C c. Business to business transactions
Answer
A. i - c, ii - b, iii - a
45
In agricultural supply chains, AI-driven predictive analytics is primarily used for:
Answer
B. Forecasting demand and optimizing inventory
46
National income of a country refers to:
Answer
B. Total money value of all ļ¬nal goods and services produced in a year
47
When a government launches large development projects despite insuļ¬cient revenue collection and bridges the gap by creating additional funds or borrowing, this situation is known as:
Answer
C. Deļ¬cit ļ¬nancing
48
Which of the following belongs to the economic environment?
Answer
A. Inļ¬ation rate
49
Cultural adaptation helps an individual to:
Answer
A. Adjust to physical or social environment
50
Globalization is the term used to describe:
Answer
B. Integration of economies and cultures worldwide
51
The yield stimulant recommended in rubber when low frequency tapping is recommended
Answer
C. Ethephon
52
The dry rubber content of latex from Hevea brasiliensis
Answer
B. 30%
53
The knife used for undertaking controlled upward tapping
Answer
A. Long handled modiļ¬ed gouge knife
54
The most common and widely used processed form in rubber
Answer
B. Rubber sheet
55
The major physiological disorder aļ¬ecting rubber
Answer
B. Tapping panel dryness
56
The intercrops such as pineapple, banana, vegetables in rubber are recommended during the period
Answer
A. 0-3 years of planting
57
Name shade tolerant intercrop in rubber plantations
Answer
D. All the above
58
Import of Seeds/Plants/Budwood and any other planting material of rubber is prohibited from Tropical America to India under quarantine regulations to prevent the spread of
Answer
A. South American Leaf Blight
59
The most widely distributed and the most diļ¬cult to control weed of rubber
Answer
C. Imperata cylindrica
60
A cobweb-like ļ¬lm of silky white mycelium appears on woody branches with exudation of latex, usually at the fork region. It spreads causing damage to bark tissue resulting in almost 'ring barking', if it is not detected early. Name the disease
Answer
D. Pink disease
61
The symptom due to infection of root knot nematode in below ground portion of cover crops in rubber plantations
Answer
C. Root galls
62
Which of the following statement is wrong? i. In strongly acidic soil, phosphate is ļ¬xed through precipitation with iron and Al in solution. ii. In alkaline soil, octa calcium phosphate is formed making P unavailable for plant growth. iii. Soil P availability is determined by pH of soil. iv. Inositol phosphate is the most abundant inorganic phosphate form in soil.
Answer
D. Only iv
63
The reagent used for turbidometric estimation of available sulphur is _____________.
Answer
A. 0.15% CaCl2
64
Select the green leaf manure crop from the following plants:
Answer
D. Dadonia viscosa
65
Langbeinite is the method of synthesis of _____________ fertilizer.
Answer
B. Potassium sulphate
66
i. Mottle leaf of citrous - a. Mn deļ¬ciency ii. Top sickness of tobacco - b. Mo deļ¬ciency iii. Pahala blight of sugarcane - c. B deļ¬ciency iv. Whip tail of cauliļ¬ower - d. Zn deļ¬ciency Correctly match the question.
Answer
C. i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
67
_____________ is the most preferred fertilizer source in paddy cultivation.
Answer
A. Ammonium Sulphate
68
Synthesis of poly (amido) amine dendrimeter is a ____________ approach.
Answer
B. Bottom up
69
_____________ is the polished and grooved surface having dimension exceeding 5 cm seen mainly in vertisols.
Answer
B. Slickensides
70
Which of the following statement is correct? i. In oxisols, dehydrated oxides of iron and alumina are responsible for stable soil aggregate formation. ii. Positively charged humic acid and fulvic acid are responsible for soil aggregate formation.
Answer
A. i only
71
Soil crust id formed due to
Answer
C. Beating action of raindrop followed by clay dispersion and drying
72
Which of the following statement is/are correct? i. Under unsaturated conditions, the rate of water movement is faster in a clay soil than in sandy soil. ii. The check basin method of irrigation is less suitable for clayey to loamy soils. iii. In a parshall ļ¬ume, accurate discharge measurement can be obtained without applying submergence correction up to about 70% submergence. iv. A lateral having 15 sprinklers spaced 20 m apart, with laterals spaced 50 m apart on the main line, requires 90 kg of fertilizer per setting at a recommended application rate of 60 kg ha-1. v. In IW/CPE method, irrigation scheduling is based on atmospheric water demand.
Answer
C. i, iii, iv and v only
73
Which of the following statement is/are correct? i. Tied ridging is land conļ¬guration technique for poorly drained soils. ii. Optimum moisture content for tilling soil is at ļ¬eld capacity. iii. Graded bunding is recommended for high rainfall areas. iv. Bench terracing is suitable for slopes of 16-33%.
Answer
C. iii and iv only
74
Which of the following correctly represents conditions for consumer equilibrium, given the following: MUā = Marginal utility of commodity X; MUįµ§ = Marginal utility of commodity Y; Pā = Price of commodity X; Pįµ§ = Price of commodity Y; M = Consumer's income
Answer
C. (MUā/Pā) = (MUįµ§/Pįµ§), subject to M = PāX + Pįµ§Y
75
A company markets chips specially with cartoon characters, small packet sizes and surprise toys to attract children. This is an example of:
Answer
C. Demographic segmentation
76
Which of the following species is expected to show the highest lattice energy?
Answer
B. MgO
77
According to the HSAB principle, which interaction is the most stable?
Answer
C. Hg2+ S2-
78
The chelate eļ¬ect mainly arises because chelating ligands:
Answer
C. Produce entropy gain during complex formation
79
For a buļ¬er prepared using a weak acid HA and its salt NaA, the buļ¬er capacity becomes maximum when:
Answer
B. [HA] = [Aā»]
80
Which of the following compounds is the most acidic?
Answer
B. Phenol
81
Which intermediate is formed during electrophilic aromatic substitution in benzene?
Answer
C. Arenium ion ( -complex)
82
Which reagent preferentially converts a secondary alcohol into a ketone under mild conditions?
Answer
B. PCC
83
Which statement correctly explains why amides are less basic than amines?
Answer
C. Lone pair on nitrogen is delocalized by resonance
84
The indicator used in iodometric titration is
Answer
C. Starch
85
The visible region lies between:
Answer
C. 400-800 nm
86
The carrier gas commonly used in Gas Chromatography is:
Answer
B. Nitrogen
87
In Kjeldahl's method, nitrogen is converted into:
Answer
B. Ammonia
88
A large value of equilibrium constant indicates:
Answer
C. Reactants predominate
89
The minimum energy required for a reaction to occur is called:
Answer
C. Activation energy
90
The process of accumulation of reactant molecules on catalyst surface is called:
Answer
B. Adsorption
91
At critical point, the density of liquid and vapour become:
Answer
C. Equal
92
The totality of exchangeable cations that can be adsorbed by a soil colloidal surface is commonly measured in which unit?
Answer
C. cmol(+)/kg
93
Which of the following is commonly used to increase soil pH?
Answer
D. Lime
94
Which instrument is used to measure soil redox potential?
Answer
A. Potentiometer
95
Which condition is a major cause of corrosion in fertilizer plants?
Answer
C. Presence of moisture and corrosive gases
96
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
Answer
B. Ammonia
97
Which of the following is a nitrogen-ļ¬xing biofertilizer?
Answer
A. Rhizobium
98
Which nitrogen fertilizer contains the highest percentage of nitrogen?
Answer
D. Urea
99
Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
Answer
C. Polylactic acid
100
In fertilizer quality testing, the Kjeldahl method is primarily used to determine:
Answer
B. Total nitrogen content
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