| Post Name | DEPUTY MANAGER (Mechanical), INSPECTOR OF FACTORIES AND BOILERS GR.II, ASSISTANT ENGINEER (Mechanical) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 050/2023 |
| Category Code | 218/2021, 219/2021, 246/2021, 551/2021, 664/2022 |
| Date of Test | 18 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements is true with regard to Atomic Packing Factor
Answer
A. PF) ?
2
Which of the following pairs is matched correctly ?
Answer
D. Volume defect – Slag and porosity
3
Which of the following is true for Burger’s vector in edge dislocation ?
Answer
A. Perpendicular to the dislocation line
4
A typical metallic sheet of 10 mm thickness and cross-sectional area of 0.25 m2 is
used as a steady state diffusion membrane in a hydrogen purifier. Find the mass
of hydrogen purified in kg per second, if the difference in hydrogen concentration
across the sheet is 1 kg/m3 and the diffusion coefficient is 1 × 10–8 m2/s.
Answer
B. 2.5 × 10–7
5
Which of the following are true for austenite ?
i. It is a solid solution of iron, carbon and chromium
ii. It has FCC crystal structure
iii. It is stable at room temperature
iv. Pure austenite is stable in the temperature range of 912 – 1394°C
Answer
D. ii and iv
6
Which of the following statements agree with the Hume-Rothery Rules for solid
solubility ?
Answer
A. The size difference between solvent and solute atoms must be less than 15%
7
In eutectic reaction, which of the following is true ?
Answer
C. liquid ↔ Austenite + Cementite
8
The case hardening technique suitable for steels with very low carbon content
Answer
A. Cyaniding
9
martensite is a
Answer
B. meta stable phase with body centred tetragonal unit cell
10
Name the type of cast iron in which carbon is present in the form of free graphite
flakes.
Answer
C. Grey cast iron
11
due to its biocompatibility and properties very close to human bone, which of these
alloys are extensively used as bone implants ?
Answer
D. Titanium alloys
12
Jominy end quench test is used to determine the
Answer
C. Hardenability of a material
13
Which of the following statements are true for mohr’s circle in a plane stress condition ?
i. maximum shear is at the top and bottom of the circle
ii. The maximum shear stress is equal to the radius of the circle
iii. The principal stresses are located at the horizontal axis where shear is zero
iv. The maximum shear stress is equal to twice the radius of the circle
Answer
B. i, ii and iii
14
A metallic cube of side 5 cm is triaxially loaded with 50 kN and 75 kN tensile loads and 100 kN compressive load in the x, y and z directions, respectively. If Poisson's ratio is 0.25 and Young's modulus is E N/mm², the volumetric strain will be
Answer
Question Cancelled
15
For a cantilever beam of length l with uniformly distributed load w/unit length and
a point load of W at the free end, the bending moment at a distance x from the free
end is given by
Answer
D. wx2/2 + Wx
16
A metallic rod of uniform diameter and length L with coefficient of thermal expansion α
and young’s modulus E is constrained between two rigid walls. If the temperature
rise is ∆T, the thermal stress developed in the rod is
Answer
A. Eα∆T
17
A uniform circular solid shaft with diameter 2 cm is subjected to a torque of 40 Nm.
The shear stress in N/mm2 at the periphery of the shaft is equal to
Answer
C. 80/π
18
Which of the following relationships hold good among modulus of elasticity E, modulus
of rigidity G and bulk modulus K ?
Answer
B. E = 9KG/(3K + G)
19
A rectangular block of height H, length L and depth D is rigidly fixed at the bottom
(length L × depth D face). When a tangential force P acts at the top face of the block
parallel to the length L, the linear deformation at the top is ∆L. What will be the shear
strain of the block ?
Answer
A. ∆L/H
20
A square bar of 40 mm size is subjected to a sudden tensile load of 80 kN. The
instantaneous stress in mPa induced in the bar will be
Answer
B. 100
21
What will be the section modulus of a rectangular beam with a breadth of 6 cm and
depth of 2 cm ?
Answer
A. 4 cm3
22
For the shear force S and bending moment M of a beam, which of the following is correct?
Answer
B. S = dM/dx
23
What will be the deflection in m at the centre of a simply supported beam of span 2 m,
when a point load of 36 kN is applied at the centre (where E in kPa and l in m4) ?
Answer
C. 6/El
24
Euler's theory of columns is valid when: (i) slenderness ratio is greater than or equal to √(π²E/σ_c); (ii) crushing stress is greater than or equal to buckling stress; (iii) the column is short; (iv) crushing stress is less than buckling stress.
Answer
A. i and ii
25
Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred, if the reversible
process takes place at constant
Answer
D. pressure
26
An engine operates between temperatures limits of 900 K and T 2 and another engine
operates between T2 and 400 K. For both engines to be equally efficient, T2 should
be equal to
Answer
B. 600 K
27
The throttling of certain gases may be used for getting the refrigerating effect. The value of Joule coefficient (μ) for such a process is
Answer
C. μ > 1
28
The thermodynamic property which is evaluated with the help of maxwells equations
from the data of other measurable properties of a system is
Answer
B. enthalpy
29
Which one of the following gases will have the maximum value of characteristic gas
constant ?
Answer
B. nitrogen
30
For a heat engine operating on Carnot cycle, the work output is 25% of the heat
rejected to the sink. The thermal efficiency for the engine would be
Answer
D. 20%
31
In Carnot cycle, the addition of heat takes at
Answer
C. constant temperature
32
Which of the following is a correct statement ?
Answer
A. a reversible adiabatic process is an isentropic process
33
For the same compression ratio and heat supplied, the air standard efficiency of an
Otto cycle compared to that of a diesel cycle is
Answer
C. more
34
Which parameter can be considered to remain constant if the value of exponent n in the polytropic equation pvⁿ = Constant takes a unit value?
Answer
B. internal energy
35
As differentials, heat and work would be described mathematically as
Answer
C. inexact
36
The mean effective pressure of an Otto cycle is
Answer
D. directly proportional to pressure ratio
37
For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest efficiency
occurs for
Answer
D. regenerative cycle
38
The steam engine part which guides motion of the piston rod and prevents it from
bending is called
Answer
B. cross head
39
In an impulse reaction turbine, the heat drops in the fixed and moving blades are
20 kJ/kg and 40 kJ/kg respectively. The degree of reaction for this stage will be
Answer
D. None of the above
40
For subsonic flow through a nozzle, the following changes occur in velocity and
pressure along the flow direction
Answer
A. pressure decreases, velocity increases
41
The volumetric efficiency of a well-designed SI engine lies in the range
Answer
D. 71 – 90%
42
In two-stage reciprocating air compressor, the suction and delivery pressures are
1 and 4 bar respectively. For maximum efficiency, the intercooler pressure is
Answer
C. 2 bar
43
If an axial flow compressor is designed for a constant velocity through all stages,
then the area of annulus of the succeeding stage will
Answer
B. progressively decrease
44
Increasing the number of reheating stages in a gas turbine to infinity makes the
expansion tending
Answer
A. isothermal
45
A refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a COP of 4.5. If it works as a
heat pump and consumes 1 kW, the heating effect will be
Answer
D. 5.5 kW
46
In aqua ammonia and li-Br water absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants are
Answer
D. ammonia and water
47
During chemical dehumidification process of air
Answer
C. dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases
48
An increase in fin effectiveness is caused by high values of
1. convective coefficient
2. thermal conductivity
3. cross sectional area
4. circumference
Identify the correct statement.
Answer
D. 2and4
49
The ratio of hydrodynamic to thermal boundary layer thickness varies as
Answer
Question Cancelled
50
In a counter flow heat exchanger, cold fluid enters at 30°C and leaves at 50°C,
whereas the hot fluid enters at 150°C and leaves at 130°C. The mean temperature
difference for this case is
Answer
C. 100°C
51
For a completely submerged body with center of gravity ‘G’ and center of buoyancy
‘B’, the condition of stability will be pressure
Answer
B. G is located below B
52
Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid through a circular pipe of diameter, D. Identify
the correct pair of statements.
1. Fluid is well mixed
2. Fluid is un mixed
3. Reynolds number less than 2300
4. Reynolds number greater than 2300.
Answer
A. 1,4
53
A flow field which has only convective acceleration is
Answer
C. A steady non uniform flow
54
As per common design practices, the three types of hydraulic turbines in descending
order of flow rates are
Answer
D. Kaplan, Francis, Pelton
55
A draft tube is not required for a
Answer
C. Pelton wheel turbine
56
A pitot-static tube measures
Answer
A. dynamic pressure
57
Surface tension is due to
Answer
D. Cohesion
58
The pressure gradient in the horizontal direction (x-direction) in a static fluid is represented by
Answer
A. ∂p/∂x = 0
59
The Newton’s law of viscosity relates
Answer
A. The shear stress and rate of shear strain
60
For steady incompressible three-dimensional flow, the continuity equation is
Answer
B. ∂u/∂x + ∂v/∂y + ∂w/∂z = 0
61
moody’s chart is used to determine the
Answer
C. Friction factor
62
Specific speed of a centrifugal pump is
3 3
4 2 4
Answer
D. 3
H4
63
Oldham’s coupling is an inversion of
Answer
C. double slider crank chain
64
Which of the following statements are true ?
i. Interference occurs in involute gears.
ii. Involute profile gears are easy to manufacture.
iii. With involute tooth form, the centre distance errors do not affect the velocity
ratio.
Answer
D. i, ii and iii
65
match the following.
P Q
i. Worm Gear drive i. Shafts are intersecting at an angle
ii. Oldham’s coupling ii. Approximate straight-line mechanism
iii. Paucellier mechanism iii. large speed reduction
iv. Co-axial shafts with a small misalignment
v. Exact straight-line mechanism
Answer
B. Pi – Qiii, Pii – Qiv, Piii – Qv
66
A cantilever beam with length L, moment of inertia of cross section I with respect to the neutral axis, and modulus of elasticity E carries a machine of weight W at its free end. Neglecting the mass of the beam, what is the frequency of free vibration of the system?
Answer
D. ωₙ = √(3EIg/(WL³))
67
A single plate clutch having single side friction has outer and inner diameters of 100 mm
and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of
friction of the liner material is 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is
Answer
C. 196 Nm
68
The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is 8000 hrs. Its life in hours if the load is
increased to 20 kN, keeping all other conditions the same, is
Answer
A. 1000
69
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is double the inside diameter. The ratio of the
torque carrying capacity to that of a solid shaft of the same material and of the same
outside diameter is
Answer
C. 15/16
70
The tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 80 percent, then the ratio of the rivet hole
diameter to the pitch is equal to
Answer
B. 0.2
71
The principal stresses of a two-dimensional state of stress are σ₁ and σ₂, where σ₁ is greater than σ₂ and both are tensile. Which criterion for failure is correct according to maximum shear stress theory?
Answer
A. σ₁/2 = ±σ_y/2
72
The slider 2 moves inwards with a velocity of v along a link 3 which is rotating clockwise
with an angular velocity ω. The magnitude and direction of the Coriolis acceleration is
Answer
D. 2ωv
73
A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 320 Nm and is running at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed ±2%, the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg–m² is
Answer
B. 20
74
The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination in degrees
of the line of stroke is equal to
Answer
C. 225 and 45
75
With the decrease of governor speed
Answer
A. Radius of rotation decreases but the height of it increases
76
Given that T1 and T2 are the tensions on the tight and slack slide of the belt
respectively, the initial tension of the belt taking the account of centrifugal tension
Tc is equal to
Answer
B. (T1 + T2 + 2Tc)/2
77
In sand casting process, when the mold consists of more than two pieces, the
additional parts are called
Answer
B. Cheeks
78
Cores are employed in castings to
Answer
A. make desired recess in castings
79
Which one of the following is the strongest among the following brazing joints ?
Answer
B. lap
80
Seam welding is a
Answer
D. Continuous spot welding process
81
Hot forging is used for producing
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
In ultrasonic machining process, the metal removal rate will be higher for materials
with
Answer
C. lower toughness
83
Among the conventional machining processes, maximum specific energy is consumed in
Answer
D. Grinding
84
Plain milling of mild steel plates produces
Answer
B. Regular shaped discontinuous chips
85
The NC system which is applicable to a milling machine is called the
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
A main advantage of ECm over Edm is that
Answer
D. its tool wear is negligible
87
Which one of the following is the most accurate instrument ?
Answer
B. Slip gauge
88
For a CNC machining process, which of the following is not applicable ?
Answer
D. No inspection is required
89
The type of layout suitable for simpler production scheduling, high volume of output
and high labour efficiency is
Answer
B. Product layout
90
A SImO chart is used for studying the relationship of
Answer
C. different limbs of an operator
91
Break-even point gives the production level at which annual ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
92
In production planning and control, loading means
Answer
B. Assigning jobs to work centres
93
The selective inventory technique ABC gives importance to
Answer
C. Value of the items
94
In operations research, Hungarian method is used to solve
Answer
B. Assignment problems
95
In the context of industrial psychology, the groups where the individuals are in
face-to-face relationships with each other are called
Answer
A. Primary groups
96
In a bath tub curve, the zone which represents the failures due to limitations inherent
in the design and accidents caused by usage is
Answer
D. Infant mortality zone
97
matrix organisation is created by
Answer
B. merging project organisation with functional organisation
98
A type of company which is being managed by the Board of directors is
Answer
A. Joint Stock Company
99
The type of conveyor most suitable for moving granular materials
Answer
C. Bucket conveyor
100
Which one of the following is not an element in the factor comparison method of job
evaluation ?
Answer
D. Employee worth
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