| Post Name | Deputy Manager (Personnel and Labour Welfare) - KERAFED |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 097/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 179/2023 |
| Date of Test | 19 August 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The Supervisor or HR specialist normally collects one or more of the following types of information via job analysis i. Work activities ii. Human behaviour iii. Performance standards iv. Job context
Answer
D. All of the above
2
Which one of the following sources is most relevant for recruiting managerial personnel ?
Answer
B. Advertisement
3
___________ is a group experience designed to provide maximum possible opportunity for the individuals to expose their behaviour, give and receive feedback, experiment with new behaviour and develop awareness of self and of others.
Answer
B. Sensitivity training
4
____________ provides a list of personnel and their background.
Answer
C. Personnel Inventory
5
______________ is concerned with gathering, classifying, processing, recording and disseminating the information required for efficient and effective management of human resource in an organization.
Answer
D. Human Resource Information System
6
Which of the following are the approaches to human resource audit ? i. Comparative approach ii. Outside authority approach iii. MBO approach iv. Statistical approach
Answer
A. All of the above
7
'Human resource management is inherent in all organizations and at all levels.' This statement implies that human resource management is __________
Answer
B. Pervasive function
8
Which of the following affect manpower planning ?
Answer
D. All of the above
9
In individual oriented Kaizen, SHITSUKE implies
Answer
C. Discipline
10
Which one of the following features of a selection test is related to its accuracy as a predictor of job performance ?
Answer
A. Validity
11
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Herzberg proposed two factor theory. ii. McClelland emphasised on power, affiliation, and achievement motives. iii. Vroom proposed three groups of core needs : Existence, Relatedness and Growth Model.
Answer
A. (i) and (ii) are correct
12
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. According to Herzberg, there are 12 maintenance or hygiene factors. ii. McClelland has identified three types of basic motivating needs such as need for power, need for affiliation and need for self actualisation.
Answer
D. (i) and (ii) are not correct
13
Which of the following needs include all needs related to physiological and safety aspects of all individual ?
Answer
A. Existence needs
14
Which of the following assumptions are correct about theory X ? i. The average man is by nature indolent; he works as little as possible. ii. He lacks ambition, dislikes responsibility and prefers to be led. iii. He is not inherently self-centred.
Answer
A. (i) and (ii) are correct
15
In Transactional Analysis, which ego state is characterized by logical thinking , problem-solving and objective decision-making ?
Answer
C. Adult
16
Consider the following statements : i. Blake and Mouton developed leadership style of managerial grid. ii. Reddin conceptualised a three dimensional grid also known as 3D Management. Which of the following is correct ?
Answer
C. (i) and (ii) are correct
17
Which of the following performance appraisal methods is designed to evaluate employees based on specific behaviors and performance criteria ?
Answer
B. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
18
In which type of leadership style do the group members perform all tasks, while the manager usually maintains contacts with outside persons to bring in the information and materials needed by the group ?
Answer
C. Free-rein leadership
19
In the implementation of Quality Circles, which of these steps is typically the most challenging ?
Answer
D. Sustaining the Quality Circle Program over the long-term
20
Which of the following HR metrics is most directly linked to business performance ?
Answer
C. Revenue per employee
21
The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in India provides for worker participation through
Answer
D. All of the above
22
The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCo) implemented an innovative worker participation program in the 1950s. What was this program called ?
Answer
C. Participation Councils
23
In Germany, the system of worker participation is known as "Mitbestimmung". Which of the following best describes this system ?
Answer
D. All of the above
24
Marriott International, the global hospitality company, utilized HR analytics to address a critical business challenge. What was the specific challenge they tackled ?
Answer
B. Reducing employee turnover in their hotels
25
In the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic, many organizations have had to rapidly adapt to remote work. What is the primary responsibility of employers in ensuring a smooth transition to remote work ?
Answer
D. All of the above
26
Industrial relations refer to
Answer
B. Employer, employee and Government relations
27
Which principle of industrial relations emphasizes fair and just treatment of employees in the workplace ?
Answer
B. Equity
28
The main purpose of a Trade Union is
Answer
B. Representing the interests of employees
29
The concept of workplace democracy in industrial relations emphasizes
Answer
B. Employee participation in decision making
30
Collective bargaining is a process primarily between
Answer
C. Trade Unions and employers
31
The Widow Remarriage Act of 1856 was a significance legislative measure in British India. Who among the following played a pivotal role in the passage of this Act ?
Answer
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
32
Which of the following social reformers was prominently associated with the advocacy of widow remarriage in 19th century Bengal ?
Answer
C. Sasipada Banerjee
33
Who is often considered the pioneer of feminist philosophy with her book "A Vindication of the Rights of Woman" published in 1792 ?
Answer
C. Mary Wollstonecraft
34
Which of the following statements is correct about the origins of the second wave of feminism ?
Answer
C. The second wave of feminism was influenced by the frustrations of college- educated mothers and the civil rights movement
35
Assertion (A) : Social workers play a crucial role in both remedial and preventive models. Reason (R) : The primary goal of social work in these models is to manage crises and provide immediate solutions to problems.
Answer
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
36
Assertion (A) : Preventive social work focuses on early intervention to prevent the occurrence of social problems. Reason (R) : Preventive social work is less effective than remedial social work in achieving long-term social change.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
37
Which section of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of weaker sections and vulnerable populations ?
Answer
B. Part IV
38
Which of the following was a significant consequence of the New Economic Policy (1991) in India ?
Answer
C. Liberalization and privatization of the economy
39
Which Five-Year Plan in India aimed at achieving "Growth with Social Justice and Equity" ?
Answer
C. Fifth Five-Year Plan
40
The primary goal of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) in India is to
Answer
B. Provide a minimum wage employment guarantee to rural households
41
According to Erik Erikson, which stage of development is characterized by the challenge of "Industry vs. Inferiority" ?
Answer
C. School age
42
Conflict theory primarily focuses on
Answer
B. The power struggles and inequality between different social groups
43
Solution-Focused Brief Therapy (SFBT) emphasizes
Answer
B. Identifying and building on what works well for the client
44
Which level of Bronfenbrenner's Ecological Systems Theory includes the cultural values and norms influencing an individual ?
Answer
D. Macrosystem
45
Which of the following best describes the concept of organizational management ?
Answer
A. The process of coordinating resources to achieve organizational goals
46
What are the main approaches to organizational management ?
Answer
D. All of the above
47
Assertion (A) : Henri Fayol's principle of 'Unity of Direction' states that there should be one head and one plan for a group of activities with the same objective. Reason (R) : This principle helps in avoiding conflicts and confusion in the organization, leading to more efficient operations.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
48
Assertion (A) : The contingency approach to management suggests that there is no one best way to manage an organization. Reason (R) : Environmental factors play a crucial role in determining the most effective management style.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
49
Assertion (A) : POSDCORB, an acronym coined by Luther Gulick, encompasses all the essential functions of administration. Reason (R) : The elements of POSDCORB - Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting - are sufficient to cover all aspects of modern organizational management.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
50
In the context of Human Service Organizations, which of the following statements is FALSE ?
Answer
C. They primarily focus on maximizing profit margins through efficient service delivery
51
Assertion (A) : Human service organizations are characterized by their focus on addressing human needs and improving quality of life, regardless of their profit orientation. Reason (R) : Voluntary organizations, a type of human service organizations, are always non-profit entities driven primarily by altruisitic motives rather than financial gain.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
52
In preparing a Memorandum of Association (MOA) for a non-profit company under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following clauses is NOT typically included ?
Answer
D. Dividend Distribution Clause
53
Which of the following best describes the nature of Social Welfare Administration ?
Answer
C. It is a multidisciplinary approach combining social work and public administration
54
In the context of program planning in SWA, which of the following is NOT a typical component of the Logical Framework Analysis ?
Answer
C. Stakeholder analysis
55
Which of the following is a limitation of Cost-Benefit Analysis in social welfare programs ?
Answer
B. It struggles to quantify intangible social benefits
56
The principle of "Client Participation" in SWA suggests that
Answer
B. Clients should be involved in the planning and implementation of programs
57
In the context of social security, which of the following best describes 'social assistance' ?
Answer
B. Non-contributory schemes targeted at the poor and vulnerable
58
The Distributional Analysis in SWA primarily focuses on
Answer
B. The impact of a program on different income groups or regions
59
Which of the following is NOT typically a function of the Central Social Welfare Board in India ?
Answer
C. Formulating monetary policy for the country
60
Assertion (A) : The implementation of evidence based practices in social welfare administration invariably leads to improved outcomes for service recipients. Reason (R) : Bureaucratic rigidity and resource constraints in social welfare organizations often hinder the effective application of evidence-based practices, potentially negating their intended benefits.
Answer
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
61
What is the main objective of the International Labour Organisation (ILO) ?
Answer
B. To promote social justice and internationally recognized human and labour rights
62
The ILO's tripartite composition includes representatives from
Answer
A. Governments, employers, and trade unions
63
Which of the following is NOT a core ILO convention ?
Answer
C. Convention on Environmental Protectin
64
Which committee is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) ?
Answer
B. Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
65
Under the Indian Constitution, which Article primarily deals with the right to form associations or unions ?
Answer
B. Article 19(1)(c)
66
In the context of industrial relations law, how is "industry" defined according to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
Answer
B. Any systematic activity carried on by cooperation between an employer and workers
67
What is the time period to publish the arbitration report by the appropriate government ?
Answer
D. 30 days
68
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the dispute settlement procedure under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
Answer
D. Litigation in the Supreme Court
69
What does the term "strike" refer to in industrial relations ?
Answer
B. A temporary work stoppage by workers
70
Which of the following is considered an unfair labour practice under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
Answer
C. Intimidating workers to refrain from joining a union
71
What is required for the certification of standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 ?
Answer
B. Agreement between employer and employees
72
Which authority typically intervenes in the adjudication stage of industrial dispute resolution under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
Answer
A. Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal
73
In the context of industrial relations, what does "retrenchment" mean as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
Answer
B. Termination of employment by an employer for any reason other than punishment
74
The sanctity of trade unionism primarily supports
Answer
C. Collective bargaining and workers' rights
75
Under the Trade Union Act, 1926, what is the minimum number of members required to apply for the registration of a trade union ?
Answer
B. 7 members
76
Which of the following is considered "misconduct" under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Rules, 1946 ?
Answer
C. Engaging in theft or fraud within the workplace
77
Which act governs the process and legality of layoffs, retrenchments, and closures in India ?
Answer
B. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
78
As per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, which of the following components is excluded from the definition of 'wage' ? i. Basic pay ii. Dearness allowance iii. The value of any house accommodation iv. Any gratuity payable on the termination of employment
Answer
A. Only (iii and iv)
79
Who has the authority to fix the minimum rate of wages ?
Answer
D. Appropriate Government
80
For what purposes may the Central Government frame a scheme called the Employees' Pension Scheme ? i. Superannuation Pension ii. Retiring Pension iii. Permanent Total Disablement Pension iv. Widowers Pension
Answer
C. All the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
81
Who shall be responsible for payment of wages in a factory as per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
Answer
C. If a person has been named as the Manager of the factory
82
According to Indian labour laws what is the minimum amount of bonus to be paid in respect of an accounting year ?
Answer
D. 8.33%
83
Which of the following shall not be deemed to be a deduction from wages ? i. Any loss of wage resulting from suspension. ii. Deductions of income-tax payable by the employed person. iii. Deductions required to be made by order of a Court or other authority competent to make such order. iv. Any loss of wage resulting from the withholding of increment or promotion (including the stoppage of increment at an efficiency bar).
Answer
D. Only (i and iv)
84
In furtherance of which provision of the Indian Constitution was the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 enacted in India ?
Answer
C. Article 39 of Constitution of India
85
Which is the appropriate forum to hear disputes that may arise between an employer and its employees regarding the bonus payable under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
Answer
A. Industrial Tribunal
86
In which case, the Supreme Court held that the rigth to life includes the right to livelihood ?
Answer
A. Olga Tellis and Ors v. Bombay Municipal Corporation and Ors.
87
Which of the following statement is correct about payment of bonus ? i. An employee shall be disqualified from receiving bonus if he is dismissed from service for fraud. ii. Claim of minimum bonus is an industrial dispute. iii. Every employee is entitled to bonus in any accounting year if he has worked for not less than 60 working days in that year. iv. There is a statutory minimum bonus irrespective of profit or loss.
Answer
D. Only (i and iv)
88
According to the Fair Wages Committee Rdeport published by the Government of India in 1949, which of the following levels of wage is considered the higher level ?
Answer
B. Living Wage
89
The Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2017 mandates that
Answer
A. Every employer shall immediately at the time of employment of an employee, inform the employee of his rights to compensation under this Act, in writing as well as through electronic means, in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area of employment, as may be understood by the employee.
90
According to the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of
Answer
D. 12 weeks
91
Which of the following is not among the general duties of an occupier as per the Factories Act, 1948 ?
Answer
C. The maintenance of major places of work in the factory in a condition that is safe and without risks to health and the provision and maintenance of such means of access to, and egress from, such places as are safe and without such risks
92
Which of the following schemes provides coverage for unorganized sector workers in the event of death or disability due to an accident ?
Answer
C. Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (AABY)
93
Which of the following is a key feature of the Employer's liability Act, 1938 ?
Answer
A. It makes employers strictly liable for employee injuries
94
Which of the following come under the meaning of 'factory' as per the ESI Act, 1948 ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
95
What type of services should secondary health care provide according to Human Resource Norms for ESIC Hospitals and Dispensaries ?
Answer
C. Comprehensive health care requirements, including medical/surgical and RCH requirements
96
Which Act provides for gratuity payment to employees ?
Answer
A. Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
97
Which of the following is the correct procedure for dispute settlement of ESI claims ?
Answer
B. Appeal to the Employee's Insurance Court, then to the High Court, and finally to the Supreme Court
98
Which of the following Acts provides for old-age pension, disability pension, and widow pension ?
Answer
D. National Social Assistance Act, 2007
99
CHIAK stands for
Answer
B. Comprehensive Health Insurance Agency, Kerala
100
Board of Trustees of Employee's Provident Fund consists of
Answer
A. (a) a Chairperson and a Vice-Chairpserson to be appointed by the Central Government; (b) not more than five persons appointed by the Central Government from amongst its officials; (c) not more than fifteen persons representing Governments of such States as the Central Government may specify in this behalf; to be appointed by the Central Government; (d) ten persons representing employers of the establishments to which the schemes referred to in the sub-section (1) of section 15 applies, to be appointed by the Central Government after consultation with such organisations of employers as may be recognised by the Central Government in this behalf; (e) ten persons representing employees in the etablishments to which schemes referred to in sub-section (1) of section 15 applies, who shall be appointed by the Central Government after consultation with such organisations of employees as may be recognised by that Government in this behalf; and (f) the Central Provident Fund Commissioner, Ex-officio
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