| Post Name | Deputy Manager (Production) - Travancore Sugars and Chemicals Ltd, Chemical Inspector/Technical Assistant (Chemical) - Factories Boilers |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 161/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 406/2022, 253/2022 |
| Date of Test | 13 November 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Purging is done
Answer
B. To avoid accumulation of inert
2
Molality of a 20% NaOH solution is
Answer
B. 6.25 M
3
Clapeyron equation relates
Answer
A. Vapour pressure with temperature
4
When two immiscible liquids are mixed, the boiling point of resulting mixture
Answer
B. Is less than the boiling point of more volatile liquid
5
Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
Answer
C. Ideal state
6
Entropy of perfect crystalline substance at absolute zero is
Answer
A. Zero
7
Heat capacity of a gas is given by where is in kJ/kmol K and T in K. Dimensions of constant a and b respectively are
Answer
B. kJ/kmolK, kJ/kmol
8
Gross heating value of a fuel is obtained when water formed during combustion is
Answer
B. In the liquid state
9
The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
Answer
C. Critical point
10
Seeds containing 30% oil and rest inerts is extracted with hexane. The underflow analysed 10% oil and 20% hexane. The percent recovery of oil is
Answer
D. 66.67%
11
The dimensions of kinematic viscosity is
Answer
A. L²T⁻¹
12
Loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to
Answer
A. Velocity head
13
In laminar flow through a pipe, if the diameter of the pipe is reduced to half, for a constant volumetric flow rate, pressure drop across the pipe
Answer
D. Increases 16 times
14
In Venturimeter pressure loss is
Answer
B. less than orifice meter
15
Cavitation in a centrifugal pump can be prevented by
Answer
C. maintaining suction head sufficiently greater than the vapour pressure
16
Priming is required for
Answer
A. Centrifugal pump
17
Hydraulic radius for a circular pipe of diameter D is given by
Answer
A. D/4
18
Drag is the force exerted by the
Answer
C. Fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
19
Viscosity increases with stress over time for
Answer
B. Rheopectic fluid
20
Pressure drop across the fluidized bed with increase in expansion of the bed
Answer
D. Remains constant
21
In a Tylor standard screen series, the ratio of the area of the openings in any screen to that of the next smaller screen is
Answer
D. 2
22
Crushing of sticky clay is done by
Answer
C. Hammer mills
23
For marine impeller, the flow number may be considered constant and equal to
Answer
B. 0.5
24
The McCabe Δ L Law states that the
Answer
A. The linear crystal growth rate does not depends on the crystal size
25
In a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate
Answer
B. Increases with increases in speed
26
A cyclone separator collection efficiency is a function of
Answer
Question Cancelled
27
Mass flow bins has the characteristics of
Answer
D. Flow is uniform
28
Used to enlarge the storage bin opening and cause flow by breaking up material bridges are known as
Answer
D. Vibrating hoppers
29
As the distance between the heat source and the object receiving the heat increases, the rate of heat transfer by radiation
Answer
C. Decreases
30
Calculate the rate of heat transfer per unit area through a copper plate 45 mm thick whose one face is maintained at 350°C and the other face at 50°C. Take thermal conductivity of copper as 370 W/m°C.
Answer
C. 2.466 MW/m²
31
The colburn j factor for heat transfer is defined as
Answer
C. N_St N_Pr^(2/3)
32
Peclet number is defined as
Answer
C. Ratio between rate of heat transfer by bulk flow to rate of heat transfer by conduction
33
For the nucleate boiling on a vertical flat plate, Jacob correlation is given as
Answer
D. N_u = 0.61(Gr·Pr)^0.23
34
Film wise condensation
Answer
A. is characterized by a thin liquid film forming over the entire surface
35
Assuming the sun to be a black body emitting radiation with maximum intensity at , what is the surface temperature of the sun?
Answer
B. 10.02K
36
A cold fluid is heated from 40°C to 130°C by steam at 150°C. The LMTD in parallel flow is
Answer
A. Lower than the LMTD in counter flow
37
The tube side heat transfer coefficient just at the entrance of tube is
Answer
C. infinity
38
The steam economy of an evaporator is defined as
Answer
D. the number of kilograms of solvent vaporized per kilogram of steam fed to the evaporator
39
The rate of diffusion in gases is about
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
Which one of the following is not associated with absorption columns?
Answer
A. Cavitation
41
A plot of partial pressure of the absorbed gas against temperature at various constant volume is known as
Answer
C. Adsorption isostere
42
Pick out the correct statement:
Answer
C. Fenske equation is used to calculate the minimum number of plates for constant relative volatility
43
When the Lewis number is equal to 1
Answer
A. Humid heat is almost equal to the specific heat
44
In Liquid-Liquid extractors, the interface is set in an open section
Answer
B. at the top or bottom of the extractor
45
Removal of one element from a solid alloy is known as
Answer
A. Selective leaching
46
Which of the following terminology correspond to Freeze drying?
Answer
A. Lyophilization
47
The point where the falling rate drying curve intercepts the x-axis corresponds to
Answer
B. Equilibrium moisture
48
In a McCabe-Thiele diagram of a binary distillation, the q-line for a feed of Saturated Vapour
Answer
B. will be a horizontal line
49
Volume of the reactor corresponding to 100% conversion is
Answer
D. Infinity
50
For the reactions requiring large residence time, which one of the following reactors is perferred?
Answer
Question Cancelled
51
Example for solid-solid reaction
Answer
C. Glass
52
Pick out the wrong statement from the following:
Answer
A. Batch reactors operates under steady state
53
In a plug flow reactor, under what condition, ideal plug flow will be observed?
Answer
D. Reynolds number zero
54
in Michaelis-Menten equation is
Answer
B. Substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity is half of the maximum reaction velocity
55
When [S] = 5Kₘ, the ratio of V₀/Vmax is:
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
If the residence time obtained for a reactor by the RTD experiment is less than that expected, it indicates
Answer
D. Presence of dead volume
57
One parameter in non-ideal PFR is
Answer
B. Dispersion co-efficient
58
For tanks in series model, the spread of the trace curve is to
Answer
D. Square root of the distance from the tracer origin
59
Introduction of an integral action in the forward path of a unity feedback system results in a
Answer
B. system with no steady state error
60
Identify the correct statement from the following:
Answer
C. The higher the amount of water vapour, the higher the absolute humidity
61
In measurement systems, which of the following are undesirable static characteristics:
Answer
D. Drift, Static error, dead zone and non-linearity
62
The primary controller in a cascade control system must always be tuned:
Answer
D. after the secondary is tuned
63
What is the relation between bar and psi?
Answer
D. 1 bar = 14.5 psi
64
Phase lag of the frequency response of a second order system to a sinusoidal forcing function
Answer
A. approaches 180° asymptotically
65
Which of the following is not an advantage of laminar flow burner used in flame photometry?
Answer
C. Sample containing two or more solvents can be burned efficiently
66
The temperature of tempering oil baths maintained at 400°C during heat treatment of steel is measured by a/an ___________ thermocouple.
Answer
A. Iron-constantan
67
Cavitation in a control valve is caused by
Answer
D. pressure recovery
68
In a feed-back control system G and H denote open loop and close loop transfer functions respectively. The output-input relationship is
Answer
A. H / (1 + G)
69
Aerobic process of water treatment
Answer
A. produces more sludge than anaerobic process
70
The power development by a hydro plant is directly proportional to
Answer
C. product of discharge and head of water
71
Which type of fire extinguisher must not be used in case of electrical base fire?
Answer
C. Foam extinguisher
72
Match the following: List I List II a. R.D.X. i. Cyclotetramethylene tetranitraamine b. P.E.T.N. ii. 2, 4, 6 Trinitrotoluene c. H.M.X. iii. Pentaerythritol teranitrate d. T.N.T. iv. Cyclotrimethlene trinitra amine a b c d
Answer
D. iv iii i ii
73
High COD to BOD ratio of an organic pollutant represents:
Answer
D. low biodegradability of the pollutant
74
By using combined cycle steam and gas power plant
Answer
C. Specific fuel consumption can be decreased and efficiency increased
75
In fault tree analysis, event symbols describe the events that lead to
Answer
C. System level failure
76
The plume behavior which occurs in the super adiabatic condition with light to moderate wind speed in the presence of large-scale thermal eddies are known as
Answer
B. Looping Plume
77
The operating temperature of a central receiver power tower of solar plant is
Answer
D. 500°C - 1000°C
78
If you bypass an emergency shutdown (ESD) function for preventive maintenance but have not properly defined mitigations, you have
Answer
B. Removed a hardware barrier
79
At point where dissolved oxygen is minimum
Answer
C. Rate of deoxygenation exceeds rate of reaertion
80
What is downwind turbine?
Answer
D. Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
81
The type of polymerisation involved in the formation of Nylon-6 is
Answer
A. Ring opening polymerisation
82
Mostly Sulphuric Acid is manufactured by
Answer
D. Double contact double absorption process
83
Undesirable side reaction occured during the manufacture of Urea is
Answer
C. Formation of
84
Strength of sugar solutions are expressed in
Answer
C. °Brix
85
In petroleum refinery operations, __________ process is used for converting paraffins and naphthenes to aromatics.
Answer
C. Catalytic reforming
86
Select the correct combination that correctly matches the process in group 1 with the entries in group 2: Group 1 Group 2 P. Electric Process I. Pulp production Q. Sulphite Process II. Phosphorus production R. Solvay Process III. Sulpher Mining S. Frasch Process IV. Soda ash
Answer
C. P - II, Q - I, R - IV, S - III
87
Polyvinyl chloride is prepared by
Answer
A. Addition type kinetics
88
Catalitic cracking is a
Answer
B. Breaking down of higher molecular weight componds to lower molecular weight compounds with endothermic reaction
89
Tripple superphosphate is prepared by the reaction of
Answer
B. Phosphate rock with phosphoric acid
90
In India which one of the industries produce elemental sulpher as a by product?
Answer
A. Petroleum refineries
91
If the interest rate is 12% and the compounding is done at the end of every two months, the effective rate of return will be
Answer
B. [1 + (0.12/6)]⁶ − 1
92
Allocation of depreciation is uniform in
Answer
A. Straight line method
93
Quick ratio is defined as
Answer
A. Liquid Assets / Current liabilities
94
At discounted cashflow rate of return
Answer
A. Net Present Value = 0
95
If the investment at zero time is 10 lakhs and annual cash flow is Rs. 2,50,000, the payback period will be
Answer
C. 4 years
96
At break even point
Answer
D. Gross Profit is zero
97
If the cost of a 100 MT chemical plant is 50 lakhs in the year 2005, what is the cost of a 200 MT plant in the year 2010? Assume that the cost index in 2005 and 2010 were 450 and 540 respectively.
Answer
A. 90 lakhs
98
Which of the following is not correct?
Answer
C. CPM is used for projects that require research and development
99
Which one of the following is not a current asset?
Answer
B. Machinery
100
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer
C. Closing stock will not appear in trial balance
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.