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Kerala PSC Deputy Manager (Technical) (Travancore Sugars and Chemicals) Previous Question Paper – 100/2024

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Post NameDEPUTY MANAGER (TECHNICAL) (TRAVANCORE SUGARS AND CHEMICALS)
Question Paper Code100/2024
Category Code676/2023
Date of Test27 November 2024
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
Fig. 1 For the circuit shown in Fig. 1, the voltage V R is :
Answer
C. 12V
2
For the circuit shown in Fig. 1, the resistance R is :
Answer
B. 4 Ξ©
3
Three resistances are connected from three terminals A, B, and C to a common point N. The resistances between A and N, B and N, and C and N are respectively 6 Ξ© ,3 Ξ© and 2 Ξ© . The equivalent resistance between A and B if the circuit is converted to delta is :
Answer
D. 18 Ξ©
4
A circuit consists of a diode and a resistor connected in series. An alternating voltage v = 100 sin 314 t is applied to this circuit. The rms and average values of the voltage across the resistor are :
Answer
D. 50, 31.85
5
The average power delivered to a load impedance 4 + j 3 Ξ© by a current 8 sin (314 t + 30 ) is :
Answer
A. 128 W
6
The voltage and current of an ac circuit are given by v = 100 cos (314 t βˆ’ 30 ) and i = 10 sin (314 t βˆ’ 15) . The power drawn from the source is :
Answer
C. 353.5 W
7
While analyzing a.c circuits using Thevenin theorem, the two basic components of the equivalent circuit are :
Answer
B. Equivalent voltage source and equivalent series impedance
8
Fig. 2 What is the Norton’s equivalent impedance between terminals A and B?
Answer
A. j 3Ξ©
9
For a balanced three-phase star-connected load with phase sequence ABC, the voltage from line A to neutral is 100 ∠30. The voltage of line B in relation to line C is given by :
Answer
C. 100√3 βˆ βˆ’60
10
A resistance of 10 Ξ© and an inductance of x m H are connected in series to a voltage source of v = 100 sin 100 t . What is the value x if the power factor is 0.7071?
Answer
D. 100 100/2024 4 A
11
The critical speed of a DC generator is defined as the speed at which :
Answer
C. The generated voltage drops to zero
12
The function of the commutator in a DC generator is to :
Answer
C. Change the direction of the induced current
13
A DC generator is said to be over compounded when :
Answer
Question Cancelled
14
Which parameter does not affect the regulation of a transformer?
Answer
B. Transformer core material
15
The leakage reactance of a transformer depends primarily on :
Answer
B. Number of turns in the windings
16
Which type of transformer core material exhibits the highest permeability?
Answer
B. Ferrite
17
All-day efficiency is affected by :
Answer
D. Both
18
The primary advantage of a salient-pole rotor in alternators is :
Answer
A. Higher stability during load changes
19
The power factor of an alternator can be improved by :
Answer
D. Both
20
The pitch factor in an alternator winding refers to :
Answer
A. The ratio of conductor length to pole pitch
21
A transmission line with a characteristic impedance 380 Ξ© is terminated with an impedance of 570 Ξ© . What is the magnitude of the coefficient of reflection?
Answer
A. 0.2
22
For a transmission line exhibiting significant Ferranti effect, what type of compensation would be most effective in mitigating it?
Answer
D. Shunt inductive compensation
23
In the context of pollution performance of insulators, which parameter is most critical for evaluating the flashover voltage of a contaminated insulator?
Answer
A. Specific creepage distance
24
Which of the following is a factor of critical consideration when designing an SF6 circuit breaker to ensure reliable operation at extreme temperatures?
Answer
B. The dielectric strength of the SF6 gas under varying pressure
25
What harmonic component is used to provide restraining torque in an over current relay to avoid false tripping during transformer inrush current?
Answer
B. Second harmonic
26
Choose the correct option. Given : Assertion
Answer
A. : Arcing ground faults are often more challenging to detect compared to solid ground faults. Reason [R] : Arcing ground faults have higher impedance and produce less fault current, making detection by conventional protection schemes more difficult.
27
Choose the correct option. Given : Assertion
Answer
D. Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct A 7 100/2024
28
The zero sequence equivalent circuit of a 3 phase transformer star connected on both sides with neutral earthed on both sides as shown in figure : 1 | ; | 1 | - | | PRIMARY SECONDARY Z 0 Zk : 000 : 0-0 >~oβ€”o
Answer
A. om
29
Why is a relay coordination study crucial in a power system?
Answer
C. To ensure selective isolation of the faulty section while maintaining system stability
30
A double circuit line consists of three conductors in each circuit. The three conductors correspond to three phases, a, b, c and a', b' and c'. Conductors a and a' are electrically parallel and constitute one phase. Similarly conductors b, b' and c, c' form other phases. Which configuration will give lowest inductance per phase : O O O O O QO oO OQ a a’ a c a b a b O O O O O CO oO O b b' b b' b c b a’
Answer
B. oe
31
Assertion
Answer
B. Both
32
Two wattmeters are connected to measure the total power in a three-phase system supplying a balanced load. The readings are 10.2 kW and –2.5 kW, respectively. It can be concluded that the power factor of the circuit is :
Answer
D. less than 0.5 (lagging)
33
In an electrodynamometer type wattmeter, the inductance of pressure coil circuit produces error and the instrument gives :
Answer
A. high reading on lagging power factor and low reading on leading power factor
34
A moving coil milli ammeter having a resistance of 0.99 ohms gives full-scale deflection when a current of 10 mA is passed through it. The value of small resistance connected to measure current upto 1 A is :
Answer
B. 0.01 Ξ©
35
A moving iron voltmeter reads accurately on 250V DC. The instrument coil has a resistance of 500 Ξ© and an inductance of 1 H and series non-inductive resistance of 2 kΞ© . If 250V, 50Hz AC is applied to it, what will be the reading of the voltmeter?
Answer
B. less than 250V
36
In measurement systems, errors arising from the pointer and the scale not being on the same plane are called :
Answer
D. parallax error
37
A wattmeter and an ammeter are used to measure the resistance of an unknown resistor. The limiting errors in the power and current measurement are Β±1.2 % and 0.8%, respectively. What is the limiting error in the measurement of resistance?
Answer
C. Β±2.8%
38
The phase error in a single-phase energy meter is compensated by :
Answer
A. adjustable copper band placed over the central limb of the shunt magnet
39
Which of the following quantity cannot be measured/determined using hall effect?
Answer
D. Diffusion constant
40
The horizontal deflection plates in a CRT are 20 mm long and 5 mm apart. The centre of the plates is 20 cm from the screen. The deflection sensitivity for an accelerating voltage of 1000V is :
Answer
C. 0.4 mm/V
41
Two thyristors of same rating and same specifications :
Answer
C. may have equal or unequal turn-on and turn-off periods
42
An SCR has a turn on time of 4 ΞΌs. An ideal trigger pulse should have :
Answer
B. short rise time with a pulse width of 5 ΞΌs
43
A single phase half wave controlled rectifier with resistive load is energised from a source of 400 sin (314 t) V supply. If the thyristor is fired at 60Β°, the average output voltage of the rectifier will be :
Answer
B. 300/Ο€ V
44
A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode if the load type is :
Answer
C. Under damped RLC
45
In a DC chopper, VS is the source voltage, TON, is the on time, and f is the chopping frequency. The output voltage of the chopper will be :
Answer
B. VS TON f
46
The di/dt rating of an SCR is specified for its :
Answer
C. rising anode current
47
A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000 and CMRR of 80dB. The common mode gain of the amplifier will be :
Answer
B. 2
48
An op-amp has a slew rate of 10 V/ΞΌs. The maximum sinusoidal output voltage possible at a frequency of 1 MHz is :
Answer
B. 5/Ο€ V
49
An op-amp in open loop has a gain of 106 and an upper cut-off frequency of 10 Hz. If the op-amp is connected as an amplifier with a closed loop gain of 100, the new upper cutoff frequency will be :
Answer
D. 100 kHz
50
The turn on time of an SCR in series with an RL circuit can be reduced by :
Answer
C. decreasing L
51
The distribution that offers an appropriate framework for representing the inherent uncertainty and variability in activity durations within a PERT chart.
Answer
A. Beta
52
If the pessimistic completion time for an activity is 10 days and the optimistic completion time is 4 days, the variance of the activity’s duration will be :
Answer
A. 1
53
An initial feasible solution for a transportation problem can be obtained using :
Answer
B. North-west corner rule
54
EOQ formula is taken using :
Answer
D. Differential Calculus
55
Which of the following principles is most commonly applied in material handling?
Answer
A. Unit Load Principle
56
In micro motion study SIMO stands for :
Answer
C. Simultaneous Motion Cycle
57
The shift of the mean describes the process where the mean moves from its current value to a new value and stays constant thereafter is called :
Answer
D. Sustained
58
OC curve is used to determine the probability of :
Answer
B. Type II error
59
If the standard deviation of 0, 1, 2, 3, ... 9 is K, then the standard deviation of 10, 11, 12, ... 19 will be :
Answer
A. K
60
Standard normal distribution has following properties :
Answer
C. Mean value zero and variance value one
61
Which crystal structure is most commonly found in pure iron at room temperature ?
Answer
A. BCC
62
Which furnace is primarily used for the manufacturing of pig iron ?
Answer
B. Blast furnace
63
Which welding process uses a flux-coated electrode to generate heat?
Answer
C. Arc welding
64
What is the function of electrode coating in arc welding?
Answer
B. Protects the weld from oxidation
65
Which type of welding is suitable for joining thick sections of metal in a single pass?
Answer
D. Thermit welding
66
What is the primary cause of porosity in welds?
Answer
A. Inadequate shielding gas
67
Which type of cutting involves the tool being fed at an angle to the direction of the workpiece’s rotation?
Answer
B. Oblique cutting
68
Which machine tool is used primarily for producing flat surfaces in metalworking?
Answer
C. Shaper
69
What is the main purpose of indexing in milling operations?
Answer
D. To divide the workpiece for angular cuts
70
Which property of materials describes the ability to resist permanent deformation under load?
Answer
D. Elasticity
71
The angle of contact made by pure water having capillary rise in a glass capillary tube of 1cm diameter is approximately :
Answer
A. 0Β°
72
Tooth paste is an example of :
Answer
C. Bingham plastic fluid
73
Which type of blades are used for getting high pressure ratio in centrifugal pumps?
Answer
B. forward curved blades
74
A negative slip will occur in a reciprocating pump when :
Answer
D. all the above
75
The angle of deflection of the jet after hitting the bucket of a Pelton wheel is approximately :
Answer
C. 165Β°
76
The characteristic length for calculating the Reynold’s number of water flowing in a channel of height 4 m and width 8 m is :
Answer
B. 8m
77
One torr is approximately equal to –––––––––– Pascal.
Answer
C. 133.33 pascal
78
In the case of free vortex flow, as the radius increases the velocity :
Answer
A. Decreases
79
Water is subjected to a pressure of 50 Mpa. The fractional decrease in volume will be
Answer
B. 2.5 Γ— 10 βˆ’2
80
Water flows through a horizontal convergent pipe having 6 cm diameter at the inlet and 4 cm diameter at the outlet, if a pressure drop of 100 pa occurs while flowing from inlet to exit. What is the velocity of water at pipe exit?
Answer
C. 0.6 m/s
81
Which one of the following is an inversion of double slider crank mechanism?
Answer
A. Skotch Yoke mechanism
82
A conical rod of length 2 m and base diameter 25 cm hangs vertically with its base fixed rigidly to the ceiling. If its weight per unit volume is 6 kg/m3, the total extension produced due to its own weight in terms of its Young’s modulus E will be : 4
Answer
B. E 1 E
83
The distance from the centre to the points of contra flexure in the case of a beam with a uniformly distributed load β€˜w’ per unit length over its span β€˜l’ and fixed at both ends is given by : 2l
Answer
D. 2 2 3
84
Two Involute gears are in mesh. The number of teeth on pinion is 20 and the gear ratio is 2. The pitch is 5 mm with the pitch line velocity 1.5 m/s. What is the length of the path of approach if it is greater than the length of path of recess and if the maximum velocity of sliding is 0.45 m/s?
Answer
B. 10 mm
85
In the case of a flywheel, the ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the rotational kinetic energy is :
Answer
C. double the coefficient of fluctuation of speed
86
The strain energy stored per unit volume for a homogeneous linear elastic isotropic material with Young’s modulus E and Poisson’s ratio Ξ½ when it is subjected to a state of pure shear Ο„ is given by : Ο„ (1 + Ξ½ ) Ο„ 2 (1 + Ξ½ )
Answer
B. E E Ο„ (1 + 2Ξ½ ) Ο„ 2 (1 + 2Ξ½ )
87
If the diameter of a long column is reduced by 80% the percentage reduction in Euler’s buckling load will be :
Answer
A. 99.84%
88
According to Unwin’s empirical formula, the nominal diameter β€˜d’ of the rivet and the thickness β€˜t’ of the plate are related as :
Answer
C. d = 1.91√t in cm
89
Which of the following statements are true with regard to friction? (i) Angle of repose is twice the semi-vertex angle of cone of friction (ii) The minimum angle of inclination of the surface at which the object starts to slide down on its own is same as the semi-vertex angle of the cone of friction (iii) The cone of friction is generated by the resultant of normal reaction and the applied force that is just enough to initiate motion on a horizontal surface (iv) Coefficient of static friction ΞΌ = tan Ο† where Ο† is angle of repose
Answer
B. only statements (ii), (iii) and (iv)
90
The torsional rigidity of a hollow cylindrical shaft having inner radius β€˜r’, outer radius R modulus of rigidity C and length l is given by : C Ο€ ( R4 βˆ’ r 4 ) C Ο€ ( R4 βˆ’ r 4 )
Answer
A. β€”β€”Wβ€”+
91
In Otto cycle the heat addition takes place at :
Answer
B. Constant Volume
92
Among the following fuels which has the highest calorific value?
Answer
D. LPG A 17 100/2024
93
The unit of thermal conductivity is :
Answer
C. Wm βˆ’1K βˆ’1
94
The heat transfer in natural convection is significantly affected by :
Answer
A. Grashoff Number
95
The position of cooling fan in an automobile is –––––––––– the radiator.
Answer
D. Behind
96
Efficiency of a refrigerator –––––––––– COP.
Answer
B. Independent of
97
The lowest temperature component in a vapour compression cycle is :
Answer
C. Evaporator
98
Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?
Answer
D. Low latent heat of vaporisation
99
The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature is :
Answer
A. Wet bulb depression
100
Which lines indicate wet bulb temperature in the psychometric chart?
Answer
B. Diagonal lines

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