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Kerala PSC Dialysis Technician Grade II – Health Services Previous Question Paper – 034/2025/OL

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Post NameDialysis Technician Grade II - Health Services
Question Paper Code034/2025/OL
Category Code134/2024
Date of Test3 April 2025
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Which of the following is a purely convection-based treatment modality ?
Answer
B. Hemofiltration
2
Efficiency of a dialyzer is determined by
Answer
A. Kā‚€A
3
Which of the following parameter is used to compare different dialysis modalities ?
Answer
C. Weekly standard Kt/V
4
The main physical principle employed in haemodialysis is
Answer
A. Diffusion
5
Dialysis encephalopathy syndrome is caused by which of the following water contaminant ?
Answer
C. Aluminium
6
Ultra-pure water used for newer dialysis modalities has endotoxin levels less than
Answer
C. 0.03 EU/mL
7
Approximate water requirement for each hemodialysis session is ?
Answer
B. 100-200L
8
Acid:base: water mixing ratio for dialysis machines is
Answer
C. 1:1.8:32
9
Which of the following is not a component of dialysis solution ?
Answer
D. Iron
10
What is the normal dialysis solution flow rate during conventional hemodialysis ?
Answer
C. 500-800mL/min
11
TMP referrs to
Answer
A. Transmembrane pressure
12
Heparin is infused
Answer
B. Between blood pump and dialyser
13
Blood leak detector is placed in
Answer
C. Dialysis solution line
14
Normal conductivity of dialysis solution
Answer
C. 12-16mS/cm
15
Which of the following is used for disinfecting dialysis machines ?
Answer
D. All of the above
16
CRRT machine has ________ pumps
Answer
D. 4
17
High flux dialyzers have all features except
Answer
D. Kuf<10ml/min/mm Hg
18
All are synthetic dialyzer membranes except
Answer
A. Cuprophane
19
Priming volume of most adult dialyzers is
Answer
B. 60-120ml
20
For dialyzer reuse the acceptable reduction in fibre bundle volume is less than
Answer
B. 20%
21
AV graft is a less desirable vascular access when compared to AV fistula because
Answer
D. Both 2 and 3
22
AV graft can be used for dialysis earlier than AV fistula within
Answer
B. 1-3 weeks of creation
23
Early use graft is made up of
Answer
A. Multilayered self sealing polyurethane
24
Which of the following is false regarding pre operative evaluation of AV fistula
Answer
B. The minimum size for AVF creation is 3 mm for vein and 2.5 mm for artery
25
Gracz fistula is made using
Answer
C. Perforating vein that arterialises both upper arm cephalic and basilic vein
26
CT Venography is indicated prior to AVF creation if there is
Answer
D. All of the above
27
Venous catheters are preferred long term vascular access for patients in
Answer
D. All of the above
28
Which of the following is false about cuffed and non-cuffed catheters ?
Answer
C. If long term use is indicated uncuffed catheter is used
29
Factors that favour right IJV Catheter over femoral catheter are all except
Answer
C. BMI<24, Tracheostomy being planned
30
Precautions to reduce air embolism during catheter removal are all except
Answer
C. Head end elevation
31
Peracetic acid is a mixture of
Answer
D. 1 and 3
32
Disinfection or sterilization of dialyzer uses
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
Which of the following is false about dialyser reuse
Answer
A. Increases incidence of first use reactions because membrane becomes less biocompatible with reuse
34
The maximum decrease in blood compartment volume of dialyzer permitted for continued reuse is
Answer
A. 20%
35
According to AAMI standards which is not true
Answer
C. Action levels are <150 CFU and <0.25 EU/ML
36
All are true about heparin except
Answer
C. Half life of heparin is 6hrs
37
Heparinoids include which of the following
Answer
D. Fondaparinux
38
Dangers of excessive correction of metabolic acidosis include
Answer
C. Options 1 and 2
39
Well tolerated ultrafiltration rate in volume overloaded patients is
Answer
C. 10ml/kg/hour
40
Target urea reduction ratio in acutely uremic patients to avoid disequilibrium syndrome is
Answer
B. 40%
41
Which of the following is not a cause of intradialytic hypotension
Answer
B. low dialysis solution temperature
42
Which of the following is a cause for hypotension due to intradialytic food intake
Answer
A. dilatation of resistance vessels in splanchnic bed
43
Which of the following drugs are prescribed for treatment of muscle cramps during dialysis
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
Which of the following method is not useful to prevent dialysis disequlibrium syndrome
Answer
B. dialysis solution with sodium concentration of 130 Mm
45
Which of the following is not true about type B dialyser reactions
Answer
B. Dialysis should be stopped immediately and further sessions discontinued
46
All of the following cause hemolysis of blood during dialysis except
Answer
D. ethylene oxide exposure
47
Management of Air embolism includes all except
Answer
A. keeping patient in recumbent position on right side
48
All of the following are used for treatment of pruritis in chronic hemodialysis patients except
Answer
C. cauterisation
49
Management of intradialytic hypotension includes all except
Answer
B. Giving whole blood
50
Prevention of dialysis disequilibrium in acute dialysis setting includes all except
Answer
B. use of low sodium dialysis solution
51
All are potential advantages of slow continuous therapies except
Answer
B. More changes in intracranial pressure
52
The standard dialysis solution inflow rate in C-HD is
Answer
B. 20-25 ml/Kg/Hour
53
As a rule of thumb, typical Blood Flow Rate in C-HD should be at least
Answer
C. Three times Dialysate flow rate
54
In C-HD, clearance of urea and small molecules is determined primarily by
Answer
A. Dialysis solution flow rate
55
Which of the following Antibiotics is likely to be removed by CRRT, thus requiring dose adjustment
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
Clotting is imminent if Filtrate Urea Nitrogen(FUN) : Serum Urea Nitrogen (SUN) ratio is
Answer
A. Less than 0.6
57
All of the following are true except
Answer
D. Swartz protocol is the most common protocol used for Heparin Anticoagulation in C-HD
58
All are complications of Isolated Ultrafiltration, except
Answer
B. Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome
59
All are true about CRRT in patients with Brain Edema except
Answer
C. Use Dialysis or Replacement fluid with relatively lower Na concentration
60
In Swartz protocol for Anticoagulation, the rate of infusion of ACD-A solution in ml/hour initially is
Answer
B. 1.5 times the BFR in ml/minute
61
All of the following statements are true except
Answer
C. Urea is freely filtered at the glomerulus and secreted at the tubules
62
False positive urine protein in dipstick includes all of the following except
Answer
D. Low urine specific gravity (<1.010)
63
Which among the following is/are true ?
Answer
D. All of the above
64
Which of the following statements is/are false ?
Answer
D. All of the above
65
Which among the following is false regarding dialyzer ?
Answer
C. High flux membranes do not allow passage of large molecular weight molecules such as B2 microglobulin
66
Which among the following is true ?
Answer
D. All of the above
67
Which among the following is false regarding sorbent dialysis
Answer
C. Second and fourth layer contain activated carbon
68
e GFR 50 ml/minute/1.73m2 belong to which stage of CKD(Chronic Kidney Disease)
Answer
B. Stage 3a
69
Which among the following is false regarding use of albumin as replacement solution in plasmapheresis compared to FFP
Answer
A. Increased risk of hepatitis
70
Complications of plasmapheresis includes all except
Answer
A. Hyperkalemia
71
Which among the following is true regarding post dilution in hemodiafiltration
Answer
D. All of the above
72
All of the following statements are true regarding hemodiafiltration except
Answer
C. Increased incidence of intra dialytic hypotension
73
Which among the following is true regarding dialysis in pregnancy ?
Answer
A. Intensive dialysis >20 hours per week
74
All of the following is true about hypertension in dialysis except
Answer
D. Shorten the dialysis or less frequent dialysis improve BP
75
Complications of diabetes mellitus include
Answer
D. All of the above
76
Which among the following is true regarding hemperfusion ?
Answer
D. All of the above
77
Unit of Kt/V, calculating adequacy of dialysis is
Answer
C. Dimensionless
78
Minimum recommended Kt/V is
Answer
B. 1.2
79
Catheter related blood stream infection is common with use of
Answer
A. Femoral catheter
80
Complication of subclavian vein canulation include
Answer
D. All of the above
81
Which of the following is the false statement about Tidal Peritoneal Dialysis (TPD)
Answer
C. Tidal Peritoneal Dialysis cycles are longer than usual APD cycles
82
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of Type 1 ultrafiltration failure in peritoneal dialysis
Answer
A. Increase in the effective peritoneal surface area consequent to the increased membrane vascularity
83
All statements about CAPD peritonitis are true except
Answer
D. pH around 5 and osmolality of standard PD solutions help in reducing the incidence of CAAPD peritonitis
84
Which of the following is the correct statement about peritoneal dialysis (PD) exit site infections ?
Answer
C. Catheter removal should be considered for exit site infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
85
Identify the true statement about dialysis solution buffer used in standard peritoneal dialysis (PD) solutions
Answer
B. Lactate is the bicarbonate generating base in commonly used PD solutions
86
All statements are true about Icodextrin except
Answer
B. Icodextrin is associated with trans locational hypernatremia
87
Juxta glomerular apparatus include
Answer
D. All the above
88
Which of the following is not an exogenous filtration marker used to estimate GFR(Glomerular Filtration Rate)
Answer
A. Cystatin C
89
Who performed the first dialysis treatments involving humans ?
Answer
C. George Haas
90
Which of the following statement is true regarding anticoagulation for acute renal replacement therapy in critically ill patients ?
Answer
B. Argatroban is the preferred approach for HIT (Heparin induced thrombocytopenia)
91
Identify the false statement about removal of phosphorous by dialysis
Answer
D. Peritoneal dialysis removes 800 mg of phosphorous daily
92
Long term metabolic complications of CAPD are all except
Answer
A. Hypoglycaemia
93
Which of the following statements is false regarding transporter type
Answer
B. Low transporters ultrafiltrate poorly and dialyse poorly
94
Identify the false statement about adequacy of peritoneal dialysis
Answer
C. Target Kt/V for APD (Automated Peritoneal Dialysis) should be higher than hose for CAPD
95
Identify the correct statement on physiology of peritoneal transport
Answer
D. All the statements are correct
96
All are the risk factors for encapsulating peritoneal sclerosis (EPS) except
Answer
A. Older age
97
Erythropoietin is synthesized by
Answer
B. 5'NT positive fibroblast
98
The equation recommended by KDIGO for estimating GFR ?
Answer
C. CKD-EPI formula
99
Refractory peritonitis is defined as
Answer
A. persistent cloudy bags after five days of appropriate antibiotics with PD fluid leucocyte count more than 100 cells
100
Identify the wrong statement about Calcitriol, the active form vitamin D Synthesized by the Kidney
Answer
D. Stimulates the parathyroid gland to make PTH (Parathyroid Hormone)

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