| Post Name | DISTRICT EXECUTIVE OFFICER / ADDITIONAL DISTRICT EXECUTIVE OFFICER |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 035/2026 |
| Category Code | 415/2025 |
| Date of Test | 6 April 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following correctly explains the concept of Sociological Imagination? (i) It connects personal troubles with public issues. (ii) It analyses individual experiences within broader social structures. (iii) It focuses only on psychological explanations of behaviour.
Answer
A. Only (i) & (ii)
2
The sociologist who analysed dyads, triads, and forms of interaction was :
Answer
D. George Simmel
3
The expansion of sociology in the 20th century also involved the growth of quantitative and qualitative research methods. Which of the following best represents this methodological shift?
Answer
B. Use of statistical analysis and field studies
4
In Anthony Giddensâ Structuration Theory, the concept of âduality of structureâ refers to :
Answer
C. Mutual constitution of structure and agency
5
Which of the following most accurately reflects Bourdieuâs critique of objectivism and subjectivism in social theory?
Answer
B. He synthesizes them through the concept of practice structured by habitus within fields
6
Derridaâs critique of logocentrism primarily targets :
Answer
C. The privileging of presence and fixed meaning in western metaphysics
7
Which statement(s) is/are correct about âIndigenizationâ? (i) It involves self-awareness and rejection of a borrowed consciousness. (ii) It encourages attention to cultural and historical specificities while using a dialectic perspective on national problems. (iii) It recommends narrow parochialism even if it fragments sociological understanding into insulated systems.
Answer
A. (i) and (ii) only
8
Which statement(s) is/are correct about change in the Indian joint family system? (i) Studies show structural transformation linked to modernization/ industrialization/urbanization (ii) Joint-family values remain socially favoured despite change. (iii) Transformation is often analysed via the family cycle idea.
Answer
D. (i) (ii) and (iii)
9
Why does Ghurye argue that endogamy should be treated as a principal feature of caste- society?
Answer
A. Because treating endogamy as chief characteristic implies recognizing the endogamous sub-units as real castes for analytical purposes
10
In Dumontâs framing, hierarchy is introduced when people adopt values, and it is quite independent of which factor?
Answer
A. Natural inequalities or the distribution of power
11
In Gail Omvedtâs framing of her project, which equation does she explicitly critique?
Answer
B. Equating Indian tradition with Hinduism and Hinduism with Brahmanism
12
In âAnnihilation of Caste,â Ambedkar argues caste is not merely a division of labour but also :
Answer
A. A division of labourers into water-tight compartments, producing a graded hierarchy rather than reflecting natural aptitudes
13
In Kancha Ilaiahâs Note about terms and concepts, why does he avoid labels like lower castes or Harijans for OBCs/SCs?
Answer
A. Because such labels subordinate productive castes; he prefers terms emerging from Dalit bahujan history for these group
14
With reference to Globalisation, consider the following statements: (i) It facilitates the movement of capital, labour, and technology across national borders. (ii) It can lead to widening socio-economic inequalities within societies. (iii) It eliminates the role of nation-states in economic policy making. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. Only (i) & (ii)
15
Which of the following factors contribute to depletion of natural resources? 1. Rapid industrialization 2. Over-extraction of groundwater 3. Sustainable resource management Select the correct answer using the code below:
Answer
A. 1and 2 only
16
Match the following: List I List II A. MNREGS 1. Livelihood security through rural employment B. Kudumbasree 2. Women-centred poverty eradication programme C. Panchayati Raj Institutions 3. Local self-governance system Select the correct answer:
Answer
A. A-1, B-2,
17
Reason and Assertion Assertion [A]: Development projects such as dams and mining often cause displacement of local communities. Reason [R]: Tribal and rural communities frequently inhabit resource-rich regions targeted for development projects.
Answer
A. Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
18
Which of the following environmental issues is primarily associated with increase in greenhouse gas concentration in the atmosphere?
Answer
B. Global warming
19
Identify the incorrect pair:
Answer
D. Globalisation â Restriction of cross-border economic flows
20
Which of the following best describes the objective of Gender Auditing in development programmes?
Answer
B. Assessing gender equality in policies, programmes and institutions
21
Consider the following statements regarding religious fundamentalism: 1. It involves strict adherence to religious doctrines. 2. It rejects reinterpretation of sacred texts. 3. Itnecessarily promotes pluralistic tolerance. A, Sociologists link it with identity politics. Which of the statements are NOT correct?
Answer
A. 38only
22
Consider the following statements regarding poverty in sociological analysis: 1. Absolute poverty refers to the inability to meet basic survival needs. 2. Relative poverty compares the living standards of individuals within a society. 3. Oscar Lewis proposed the concept of the culture of poverty. 4. Poverty is unrelated to structural inequality. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
C. 1,2 and 3 only
23
Match the Following List I List II A. Heteronormativity 1. Recognition of transgender persons as third gender B. Homophobia 2. Fear, prejudice or hatred towards homosexual people C. Navtej Singh Johar Case (2018) 3. Decriminalization of homosexuality D. NALSA Judgment (2014) 4. Social assumption that heterosexuality is the norm Codes:
Answer
A. 4,
24
Consider the following statements regarding Untouchability: 1. Untouchability was abolished under Article 16 of the Constitution of India. 2. | Untouchability is historically linked to the caste hierarchy and notions of ritual purity and pollution. 3. | Untouchability exists only in rural India and has disappeared in urban areas. 4. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted to enforce the constitutional abolition of untouchability. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. 2 and 4 only
25
Consider the following statements regarding Social Exclusion and Indian society: 1. Caste-based discrimination historically contributed to social exclusion of Dalit communities. 2. Social exclusion can operate through spatial segregation, occupational restrictions, and denial of social mobility. 3. Social exclusion disappears automatically with economic growth. 4. Social exclusion may also intersect with gender, ethnicity and disability. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
D. 1,2 and 4 only
26
Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of communalism identified by T. K. Oommen?
Answer
D. Structuralist
27
In one of the following Research Design, the researcher has either no knowledge or a limited knowledge about the issue to be studied :
Answer
C. Exploratory research design
28
The data collection method that can be used for indepth study in a detailed manner:
Answer
B. Case study
29
Which among the following is true about Participant Observation method?
Answer
C. The investigator involves himself in the setting and group life of the research subjects
30
Which among the following steps of social research involves using of quantitative or qualitative techniques to interpret data?
Answer
B. Data Analysis
31
Utilizing existing data sources such as government reports, books and previous research findings for research purpose is:
Answer
B. Secondary data analysis
32
Collecting numerical data from a large population is
Answer
A. Quantitative method
33
Which among the following is availed to track changes and developmental trends over an extended period of time?
Answer
A. Longitudinal study
34
The project of colonial modernity aimed at the reformation of inhabitants of the colonised places affected different communities or social groups differently which was determined by factors such as
Answer
D. All of the above
35
When applying the Systems Approach to a family intervention, a social worker views the family as a âBoundaried System.â If one member suffers from substance abuse, the social worker focuses on the âEquifinalityâ principle. What does this imply?
Answer
B. The worker recognises that the same end state can be reached starting from different initial conditions and through different paths.
36
Social legislation in a democratic welfare state acts as an instrument of social change. Logically, what is the primary limitation of legislation achieving this change?
Answer
B. Laws are static while society is dynamic, leading to a âcultural lagâ where legal norms trail behind the social realities.
37
Which of the following distinguishes âSocial Securityâ from âSocial Welfareâ in a logical framework?
Answer
C. Social security is primarily an economic response to specific life contingencies, while social welfare is a broader range of social services
38
The âResidualâ view of social policy suggests that state should only intervene when other social institutions like family and market fail. What is a critical logical flaw in this perspective from a âSocial Justiceâ perspective?
Answer
D. It ignores the fact that social institutions are very often sources of inequality and exclusion.
39
In the Remedial Model of Social Work, the worker is often seen as a âClinicalâ Expert. What is the primary focus of this model?
Answer
A. Identifying and treating social dysfunction or deviance in individuals of small groups to restore them to normalcy.
40
Match the following I. Person in Environment: a. Systems Theory II. Unconscious Motivation: b. Social learning Theory III. Boundaries and Subsystem: c. Ecological Theory IV. Role Modelling d. Psychodynamic Theory
Answer
B. I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
41
Choose the correct option Assertion
Answer
D. Assertion
42
Choose the statements that are correct about the Task-Centred Approach. 1. The task-centred model is structured around collaboratively negotiated goals, which are changed into specific, time-bound tasks. 2. Long-term interventions are needed for personality changes in order to make changes measurable. 3. Signifies the importance of client participation in problem identification and in the success of interventions. 4, This model focuses on brief and focused intervention rather than being exploratory.
Answer
A. 1,3 and 4 only
43
The Strengths-Based Perspective primarily focuses on:
Answer
C. Client capacities, resources, and resilience
44
Arrange the correct sequence in the Problem-Solving Model:
Answer
A. Problem identification â Goal setting â Intervention â Evaluation
45
Consider the following four statements about social work models and perspectives. Identify which statement is INCORRECT:
Answer
C. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy in social work practice focuses on changing the clientâs external social environment first, as this is what directly drives negative thought patterns.
46
Assertion
Answer
C. Both
47
In a rapidly urbanizing locality, traditional authority collapses, crime rates increase, and normative regulation weakens. This condition most closely reflects:
Answer
D. The state of anomie resulting from weakened collective moral regulation.
48
The welfare orientation of the Indian State is primarily institutionalized through:
Answer
A. The Directive Principles guiding state policy toward social justice and equity.
49
Arrange the following theories in chronological order of publication: 1. Historical materialism by Karl Marx 2. Cultural lag by William F. Ogburn 3. Social evolutionism by Herbert Spencer 4. Cyclical theory by Pitirim Sorokin
Answer
A. 3, 1, 2, 4 represents the correct historical sequence.
50
A social institution differs from a social group because it:
Answer
B. Consists of organized norms and roles to fulfill societal needs.
51
An organization adjusting its policies in response to market competition demonstrates the systems approach to management.
Answer
B. Treating organization as open adaptive system
52
Assertion [A]:
Answer
A. Both [A] and [R] are true. and [R] explains [A]
53
Auditing ensures that financial records present a true and fair view of organizational performance. (True/False)
Answer
A. True statement regarding audit objectives
54
Arrange the stages of the strategic management process in the correct sequence: 1. Strategy implementation 2. Environmental scanning 3. Strategy evaluation 4. Strategy formulation
Answer
C. 2-4-1-3
55
Consider the following statements regarding the formation of a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860: 1. A society can be formed by subscribing names to a Memorandum of Association. 2. The Memorandum of Association must be filed with the Registrar for registration 3. A minimum of seven persons are required to form such a society. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer
C. 1,2and3
56
A trustee of a charitable trust diverts a portion of the trust property for purposes not authorized by the trust deed and contrary to the legal obligations imposed on him. In the context of the provisions governing trustees, such an act would most appropriately be classified as:
Answer
B. Breach of trust by the trustee
57
Which of the following statements about POSDCORB is NOT correct?
Answer
C. It focuses primarily on behavioural dynamics and informal group relations in organizations.
58
Which of the following provisions would most appropriately be included in the bye-laws of a voluntary organization rather than in its Memorandum of Association?
Answer
C. Procedure for conducting annual general meetings
59
Which of the following statements best reflects the legal position of a society in litigation under the Societies Registration Act, 1860?
Answer
C. A society may sue or be sued through designated office bearers.
60
A senior administrator notices that two departments are implementing similar programmes independently, leading to duplication of work and inefficient use of resources. He intervenes to integrate their activities. Which POSDCORB function is primarily involved in this action?
Answer
A. Coordinating
61
Refer to the following statements marked as Assertion [A] and Reason [R]. Choose the correct code : Assertion [A]: Distributional analysis promotes equitable allocation of welfare resources. Reason [R]: It examines how benefits and costs are shared among different population groups.
Answer
A. Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] explains [A]
62
While reviewing a social protection scheme, administrators observe that outputs are delivered as planned, but intended long-term social change is not achieved. According to Log Frame Analysis, which dimension requires critical reassessment?
Answer
C. Assumptions and outcome-level indicators
63
A State Government finds that a welfare programme shows high aggregate benefit, but the lowest income quintile receives minimal direct advantage. From a managerial and policy standpoint, which analytical tool should be applied to correct this imbalance?
Answer
B. Distributional Analysis
64
A district-level welfare programme reports strong quantitative outputs but weak beneficiary satisfaction and limited behavioural change. From an administrative evaluation standpoint, which principle of Social Welfare Administration must be strengthened?
Answer
B. Participatory planning and monitoring
65
Which of the following policy shifts represents a transition from residual welfare to institutional welfare in social security design?
Answer
B. Expanding benefits to cover all citizens as a matter of right
66
Which of the following statements regarding the Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB) is/are correct? 1. It was established by an Act of Parliament in 1953. 2. It functions as an autonomous body under the Government of India. 3. It derives its authority from a Government Resolution. 4. It is a constitutional body under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
Answer
C. 2and 83 only
67
Which of the following specific phrasing is NOT included in the âDeclaration concerning the aims and purposes of the International Labour Organisationâ
Answer
D. eclaration of Philadelphia, 1944) as an obligation to be promoted among the nations of the world?
68
According to CESCR General Comment No. 3, while the Covenant provides for âprogressive realizationâ and acknowledges resource constraints, certain obligations are of âimmediate effect.â Which of the following is NOT an obligation of immediate effect under the ICESCR?
Answer
D. The obligation to provide free secondary and higher education and to establish a social security system covering all nine branches of social security as defined by ILO Convention 102.
69
Article 43A (inserted by the 42nd Amendment) mandates the State to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings. Under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, âNegotiating Councilsâ have been established. If a Trade Union demands a seat on the Board of Directors based on Article 43A, how would the Court likely resolve the conflict between this Directive Principle and the Employerâs Right under Article 19(1)(g)?
Answer
B. The demand will be rejected because Article 43A is not self-executing and requires specific enabling legislation (which the IR Code does not currently provide for Board-level seats).
70
Under the Industrial Relations (IR) Code, 2020, the Industrial Tribunal now consists of two members: one Judicial and one Administrative. In the event of a disagreement between the two members during the adjudication of a dispute, what is the specific, highly technical procedural mandate for resolving the deadlock to ensure a final order?
Answer
D. If the members are divided, they shall state the point(s) of difference and refer the same to the Appropriate Government, which shall then refer the case to another member of a Tribunal or a Judicial Officer of equivalent rank for a final decision.
71
Under Section 54 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Central Government possesses the discretionary power to refer disputes of ânational importanceâ to a National Industrial Tribunal. In a scenario where a dispute involving a multi-state establishment is already pending before a State-level Industrial Tribunal, what is the legal consequence of a subsequent reference made by the Central Government under Section 54(1)?
Answer
C. On the making of such a reference to a National Industrial Tribunal, any proceeding in relation to that dispute pending before a State Tribunal shall be deemed to have been stayed and shall subsequently lapse.
72
If a union issues a strike notice but the strike is subsequently prohibited because the Government refers the dispute to a National Tribunal, what happens to the legal validity of that specific notice once the 60-day expiry period passes during the pendency of the adjudication?
Answer
C. The notice lapses completely, and the union must issue a fresh 14-day notice if they wish to strike after the 60-day bar following the award.
73
Under Section 65(1), the provisions regarding Lay-off and Retrenchment are explicitly declared non-applicable to industrial establishments to which âChapter Xâ applies. What is the fundamental legal reason for this specific exclusion?
Answer
B. Chapter X provides a separate, more stringent set of âPrior Permissionâ requirements for lay-offs and retrenchments in larger establishments.
74
Under the Explanation to Section 67 of IR code, a âBadli workerâ is initially excluded from lay-off compensation. However, at what precise legal moment does a Badli worker automatically acquire the right to claim lay-off compensation under this section?
Answer
C. Upon the completion of one year of continuous service in the establishment.
75
An employer lays off a worker for 60 days. There is a prior written agreement that no compensation is payable after the first 45 days. If the employer decides to retrench the worker on the 61st day, how is the âSet-offâ principle under the second proviso of Section 67 applied to the final retrenchment package?
Answer
A. The employer can deduct the 45 days of lay-off compensation from the total retrenchment compensation payable under Section 70.
76
A worker is employed by a firm specifically set up for the construction of a dam. The project is completed and the undertaking is closed down exactly 18 months after it was set up. What is the workerâs statutory entitlement to compensation under clause
Answer
C. No compensation under clause
77
A registered Trade Union has exactly 50.8% support on the muster roll. Under Section 14(3), what is its legal status in an establishment with multiple unions?
Answer
B. Leading Union in a Council
78
If a Negotiating Council reaches an agreement with an employer, but the largest union in that council (holding 48% support) dissents, is the agreement legally binding?
Answer
B. Yes, if a majority of representatives agree
79
A âgroup of employersâ submits a joint draft of standing orders. If only one employer in the group is dissatisfied with the Certifying Officerâs order, can they file an individual appeal?
Answer
B. Yes, âemployerâ includes all individual employers in the group
80
Who among the following gave wage fund theory for the first time?
Answer
A. Adam Smith
81
The price at which the Government purchases food grains for maintaining public distribution is known as :
Answer
B. Procurement prices
82
Under the Minimum Wages Act 1948 the appropriate government shall fix the minimum rate of wages payable to the employees employed in an employment specified in
Answer
A. Schedule I, Part I, II and the employments and added under Section
83
The minimum wages as fixed under the Minimum Wages Act 1948 must be revised at least once in
Answer
C. 5 years
84
What is the primary objective of the Minimum Wages Act?
Answer
B. To ensure fair remuneration for labour and prevent exploitation
85
Who is responsible for fixing and revising minimum wages under the Minimum Wages Act?
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
Which of the following categories of workers are exempted from the provision of the Minimum Wages Act?
Answer
B. Apprentices engaged under the Apprentices Act, 1961
87
What action can be taken against employers who fail to pay minimum wages as per the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act?
Answer
B. Fine or imprisonment
88
Inspector for the purpose of administration of the Minimum Wages Act 1948 is appointed by
Answer
A. Appropriate Government
89
Under the Minimum Wages Act minimum wages are fixed based on
Answer
A. Cost of living index
90
Under the Employeesâ Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation for personal injury caused to a workman by accident arising out of and in the course of employment. Which of the following is NOT a valid defence available to the employer?
Answer
D. Injury occurred outside India during the course of employment.
91
The maximum period for which maternity benefits are available to a woman having less than two surviving children under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 is :
Answer
C. 26 weeks
92
Which of the following statements are correct as per the Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948? I. The ESI Act applies to factories employing 10 or more persons II. Medical benefit under ESI is available only during the period of contribution. III. The appropriate Government may extend the provisions of the Act to other establishments.
Answer
A. I and III only
93
Under the Factories Act, 1948, the term âmanufacturing processâ includes :
Answer
B. pumping oil or water
94
The Employersâ Liability Act, 1938 provides that any contract whereby a workman relinquishes his right to compensation for personal injury arising from employerâs negligence is :
Answer
C. void and unenforceable.
95
Under the Code on Social Security, 2020 which of the following statements is correct? I. The Code subsumes the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 II. Gig workers and platform workers are recognized under the Code. III. The Code abolishes maternity benefit provisions.
Answer
A. I and II only
96
Compensation in case of death resulting from injury is calculated under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 as :
Answer
B. 50% of monthly wages Ă relevant factor
97
Which of the following statements is correct under the Factories Act, 1948. I. A factory must provide a creche if it employs more than 30 women workers. II. No adult worker shall work more than 48 hours in a week. III. Weekly holiday is mandatory.
Answer
D. All of the above
98
Which of the following statements is correct according to the Code on Social Security, 2020. I. Aggregators are required to contribute towards social security of gig workers. II. Employeesâ Provident Fund provisions are retained under the Code. III. Employeesâ State Insurance provisions are completely repealed without incorporation.
Answer
C. I and II only
99
Under the Employeesâ State Insurance Act, 1948 an insured person who suffers permanent disablement is entitled to
Answer
B. Permanent disablement benefit
100
Which of the following statements are true under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961. I. Dismissal during maternity leave is prohibited. II. Medical bonus is payable where no pre-natal confinement care is provided by the employer. III. The Act applies only to factories.
Answer
A. I and II only
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