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Kerala PSC Divisional Accounts Officer (Kerala State Electricity Board) Previous Question Paper – 138/2025

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Post NameDIVISIONAL ACCOUNTS OFFICER (kERALA STATE ELECTRICITY BOARD)
Question Paper Code138/2025
Category Code191/2024
Date of Test29 October 2025
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
Punch marked coins are the ____________
Answer
B. These are the earliest coins introduced in India around 6th century B C, during the period of Mahajanapadas
2
Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda struggles were important because ____________
Answer
D. All of the above
3
Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.
Answer
A. Shubhanshu Shukla was first ISRO Gaganyatri to visit ISS as part of Axion mission
4
Madhav Gadgil report related to ____________ (i) A report on the environmental consequences of Nuclear Power plants. (ii) The report classified 37% of western ghats as Eco-sensitive area and remaining more populated areas as cultural landscapes with less stringent regulation. (iii) This report recommends strict conservation of western ghats region in India. It recommended severe restrictions on mining, thermal power plants and dam construction. (iv) The report also known as WGEEP submitted to the Ministry of Environment and forest, Govt. of India on 31st August, 2011.
Answer
C. Option (iii) and (iv)
5
Select the correct statement about Tehri Dam. (i) The dam is situated in Uttarakhand and it is built on Alakananda river. (ii) This dam is considered as the tallest Dam in India built on Narmada river. (iii) This dam was built on Bhageerathi river in Uttarakhand. (iv) It is a multi purpose dam and considered as the largest earthen dam in India. (v) Environmentalists like Sunderlal Bahuguna and Virendra Dutt Saklani pointed out the environmental consequences of the project.
Answer
D. Option (iii) and (v)
6
Among the following which is correct about Lex Loci Act of 1850?
Answer
B. The act provided the right to inherit ancestral property to Hindu converts to Christianity.
7
Which one of the following is/are correct about Rafael Mariano Grossi?
Answer
B. Director General of International Atomic Energy Agency
8
Who invented World Wide Web and in which year?
Answer
A. Introduced in 1989 by Tim Berners Lee with Robert Caillian
9
What is the importance of 42nd constitutional Amendment?
Answer
C. Through this amendment which came into force on 18th December, 1976 the word ‘secular’ was also added in the preamble of the constitution
10
Select the correct statement about Albert Einstein.
Answer
A. He received Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921 for his invention of the law of photo electric effect
11
Choose the pronoun that best fits : ‘‘Each of the boys must bring ____________ own lunch.”
Answer
B. his
12
Which of the following is NOT a possessive pronoun?
Answer
C. Our
13
Choose the passive form of the sentence : “The company will launch a new product”.
Answer
C. A new product will be launched by the company
14
In which sentence is the gerund the object of the verb?
Answer
Question Cancelled
15
The candidate ____________ speaking for ten minutes.
Answer
B. had been
16
Which form is the past participle of “bid” (in the sense of offering a price)?
Answer
C. bid
17
What type of adverb is in the sentence: “I have never been to Paris.”
Answer
C. Adverb of time
18
Which sentence uses “the” correctly?
Answer
A. I saw the sun rising in the morning
19
He was commended ____________ his bravery during the rescue.
Answer
A. for
20
Unscramble the letters : “RALNE”. What is the correct word?
Answer
A. Learn
21
If the greatest common divisor of two numbers a and b is 10, which of the following equations has integer solution x, y ?
Answer
D. ax + by = 20
22
The remainder in the division of the polynomial 2x 5 − 3x 4 − 12x 3 + 7x 2 − 4 x + 10 by x − 1 is,
Answer
B. 0
23
The roots of a quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are 3 + 2 and 3 − 2 . What is the c value of ? a
Answer
Question Cancelled
24
The number of solutions of the system of equations 2x + 3 y = 5, 7x + 4 y = 10 is :
Answer
C. 1
25
The value of y in the system of equations 3x + 5 y = 9, 5x + 3 y = −1 is :
Answer
D. 3
26
Given 2 arithmetic progressions 13, 18, 23,... and –1, 4, 9,….. A third sequence is formed by summing up the corresponding terms of these progressions. Which of the following numbers is a term of the third sequence?
Answer
D. 125
27
If a, b, c are the cube roots of 1, then the value of a + b + c is :
Answer
A. 0
28
Given that a = 5 − 7 , b = 5 + 7 what is the value of a 2 + b2 ?
Answer
A. 24
29
Two numbers a and b are in the ratio 3 : 2. What is the ratio of the numbers 2a 2 + 3b2 and 3a 2 + 2b2 ?
Answer
B. 6 : 7
30
A tap fills a water tank in 2 hours. A leak at the bottom of the tank empties it in 3 hours. Both were opened for 1 hour after that the leak has closed. By how much time will the tank fill?
Answer
D. 2 hours 40 minutes 138/2025 6 A
31
A man spends 80% of his salary and gives 5% of the remaining amount for charity. If he is left with him Rs. 2,850. Find his salary.
Answer
A. 15,000
32
How many years does it take for Rs. 31,250 to amount Rs. 35,152 at 8% interest per annum, interest being compounded half yearly? 1
Answer
B. 1
33
The following bar graph shows the profit of a company in different years. Find the year in which percentage increase of profit over the previous year is the highest.
Answer
B. 2013-2014
34
Weights (in kg) of five persons in a group were 68, 71, 74, 77 and 80. A person having a weight of 65 kg joined the group later. Find the difference between the average weights of persons in the old group and the new group.
Answer
D. 1.5 kg 138/2025 7 A
35
From a point P, the length of the tangent to a circle is 15 cm and the distance of P from the center is 17 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
Answer
C. 8 cm
36
Find the area of a triangle with lengths of the sides as 90 cm, 54 cm and 72 cm.
Answer
C. 1944 cm2
37
A cap is in the form of a right circular cone having its base radius 8 cm and height 15 cm. Find the area of the sheet required to make such a cap.
Answer
A. 136 π
38
A man of 1.6 m height sees the top of a tree at an angle of elevation 60º. If the man stands 10 m away from the foot of the tree, what is the height of the tree? (Take 3 = 1.73)
Answer
D. 18.9 m
39
A point (x , y ) equidistant from (1, 4) and (–2, –5) satisfies the relation :
Answer
A. x + 3y + 2 = 0
40
In a group of 50 students, 32 students play Badminton or Tennis, but not both ; 10 students do not play either Badminton or Tennis ; number of students playing Badminton is same as the number of students playing Tennis. What is the number of students playing Badminton?
Answer
B. 24
41
____________ uses “fair value”
Answer
B. IFRS
42
Explain the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period.
Answer
B. Balance sheet
43
Which of the following are revenue expenditure for an office equipment dealer? (i) Sales promotion costs. (ii) Warehouse extension costs. (iii) Purchase of office equipment for resale. (iv) Purchase of delivery vehicle for sales department.
Answer
B. (i) and (iii)
44
Which of the following statement is correct about Intangible assets?
Answer
D. It comes under AS 26
45
For withdrawal of goods for personal or domestic purpose, the account transferred is :
Answer
B. Drawings A/c Dr To Purchase/Stock A/c
46
With double accounting system, which of the following accounts are prepared? (i) Profit & Loss a/c (ii) Revenue account (iii) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account (iv) Net Revenue account
Answer
D. (ii) and (iv) 138/2025 9 A
47
The following Companies Act 2013 deals with the company definition :
Answer
A. Section 2(20)
48
It descries the Scope of Accounting Standards :
Answer
C. Financial statement, Global application
49
What is the extension of SMPS?
Answer
A. Switch Mode Power Supply
50
The financial statement give a true and fair view of the company’s financial health and they must be prepared using the Accounting Standards :
Answer
A. Section 129 - Financial Statement
51
Following Factors Contributed to the Development of IFRS :
Answer
D. All the above
52
X Ltd. Enter into contract with customers to sell goods at transaction price :
Answer
B. Transferred after 30 days, but within 45 days – Transaction price Rs. 9,80,000
53
Which of the following statements are correct about Net Revenue Account under double accounting system? Statement 1 : Interest paid on debentures is debited to Net Revenue account. Statement 2 : Interest received from loans is credited to Net Revenue account. Statement 3 : Net Revenue account is similar to Profit and Loss Account of any trading concern.
Answer
B. Only 1 and 2
54
A reserve created out of profits in excess of the reasonable return earned by an electricity company is called :
Answer
A. Tariff and Dividend Control Reserve
55
In financial statements under double accounting, preliminary expenses appears on :
Answer
B. Capital Account
56
Which of the following statements are true with respect to double accounting system? Statement 1 : Fixed assets are shown at cost in Capital Account. Statement 2 : Income Statement is prepared in two parts namely Revenue Account and Net Revenue Account. Statement 3 : Balance sheet includes Capital Account and General Balance sheet.
Answer
A. All of the above
57
Calculate the amount to be capitalized if the original cost of an asset used in an electricity company is Rs. 50,000, present cost of replacement of that asset is Rs. 75,000 and an amount of Rs. 85,000 is spent for its replacement :
Answer
C. Rs. 10,000
58
In final accounts of electricity companies, Reserve for Rebate to consumers is shown on :
Answer
C. Debit side of Net Revenue Account
59
An electric supply company wants to replace one of its plants. However materials recovered from the old plant of a value of Rs. 50,000 has been used in new construction. What journal entry will be passed for this transaction?
Answer
B. Plant Account Dr Rs. 50,000 To Replacement Account Rs. 50,000
60
Which of the following statements are correct about Capital Account prepared under double accounting system? Statement 1 : Capital Account records all receipts and expenditure on capital account. Statement 2 : Capital Account gives the general public full and complete information about raising and utilization of fixed capital. Statement 3 : Capital account is similar to a cash account.
Answer
A. Only 1 and 2
61
In electricity companies, the excess of clear profit over the reasonable rate of return is the :
Answer
B. Surplus
62
Total receipts in Capital Account of an electricity company is Rs. 2,00,000 and Company has a debentures of Rs. 3,00,000. Which amount should be shown in the General Balance Sheet?
Answer
Question Cancelled
63
What is the treatment of depreciation on fixed assets under double accounting system?
Answer
D. Credited to Depreciation Fund Account
64
Which of the following statements are true with respect to double accounting system? Statement 1 : Public utility concerns follow double account system. Statement 2 : Shares forfeited account is shown in liabilities side of General Balance Sheet. Statement 3 : Loans and debentures are shown in Capital Account.
Answer
B. Only 1 and 3
65
Which of the following statements is / are correct about reserve capital and capital reserve? (i) Reserve Capital is created out of uncalled capital. (ii) Capital Reserve is created out of capital profits. (iii) Capital reserve can be used to write off capital losses. (iv) Special resolution is required to create reserve capital.
Answer
D. All of the above
66
__________ is a scheme under which the company gives option or right and not obligation to the whole-time directors, officers, or employees to purchase or subscribe at a future date the equity shares at a predetermined price.
Answer
A. ESOS
67
Identify journal entry for Securities premium payable with allotment money :
Answer
B. Share Allotment a/c Dr To Share Capital a/c To Securities Premium Reserve a/c
68
Which of the following statements is / are correct about debentures? (i) Debentures are creditorship securities. (ii) Debentures have voting rights. (iii) Debentures are unsecured. (iv) Debenture holders are creditors.
Answer
B. (i) and (iv) only
69
Securities Premium reserve account can be applied only for the following purposes. (i) To issue fully paid bonus shares. (ii) To write off preliminary expenses of the company. (iii) To buy back its own shares. (iv) To write off discount allowed on issue of shares or debentures of the company. Which of the above statements is / are correct about Securities premium?
Answer
D. All of the above
70
Which of the following statements is/are correct about provision? (i) Provision is a charge against profit to meet any specific liability in future. (ii) Provision is kept for known liability. (iii) Provision is shown as a deduction from the asset concerned. (iv) It is shown in the form of accumulated liability.
Answer
D. All of the above
71
Section which defines a Company under Companies Act 2013 :
Answer
B. Section 2(20)
72
Which of the following statements is / are correct about stock? (i) A stock is a bundle of shares of a company. (ii) Stock is always fully paid up. (iii) Stock has no nominal value. (iv) Stocks have a distinct number.
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
73
Identify the correct journal entry for issue of debentures for consideration other than cash :
Answer
C. Both
74
Which of the following statements is / are correct about over-subscription? Over-subscription of shares leads to : (i) Total rejection of some applications. (ii) Acceptance of some application in full. (iii) Allotment of remaining applicants on a pro-rata basis.
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
75
Which of the following statements is / are correct about calls in arrears? (i) It is the amount called up by the company but paid by shareholders. (ii) It is the amount not due to the company from the shareholders. (iii) It shows credit balance.
Answer
C. None of the above
76
Which of the following statements is / are correct about Hire purchase system? (i) The possession of goods is transferred to the buyer immediately. (ii) The ownership passes to the buyer (hirer) when he pays all instalment. (iii) The property in the goods remains with the vendor (hiree) till the last instalment is paid.
Answer
D. All of the above 138/2025 15 A
77
Which of the following statements is / are correct about source of dividend? (i) Current year’s profit after depreciation. (ii) Previous year’s profit after depreciation. (iii) Both current years profit and previous year’s profit. (iv) Money provided by Central Govt. or State Govt. for the payment of dividend in pursuance of a guarantee given by that Govt.
Answer
C. All of the above
78
Under Section 197 of the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following statements regarding managerial remuneration are correct? (i) Total managerial remuneration to directors, including Managing Director and Whole-time Directors, cannot exceed 11% of net profits. (ii) If a company has no or inadequate profits, Schedule V applies for remuneration limits. (iii) In case of inadequate profits, managerial remuneration can be paid without Central Government approval, subject to Schedule V. (iv) Sitting fees to directors are excluded from managerial remuneration.
Answer
D. All of the above
79
Which of the following is correct in the context of Company Final Accounts?
Answer
D. Managerial remuneration is charged to the Statement of Profit & Loss before arriving at profit for appropriation
80
Assertion (A) : Dividend cannot be declared from revaluation reserve. Reason (R) : Revaluation reserve is an unrealised reserve and does not represent actual profits.
Answer
A. Both
81
Company A and Company B report the following : Particulars Company A Company B Current ratio 3.5 1.5 Quick ratio 1.2 0.8 Inventory turnover 3 times 7 times Which of the following interpretations is correct?
Answer
B. Company B has weaker liquidity but better inventory management
82
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ratio Analysis? (i) Liquidity ratios primarily evaluate a firm’s short-term solvency and ability to meet current obligations. (ii) Activity ratios measure the efficiency of utilizing assets in generating sales revenue. (iii) Leverage ratios reflect the extent of reliance on debt financing and its effect on financial risk. (iv) Profitability ratios are independent of sales and measure only operational efficiency.
Answer
A. (i), (ii), and (iii) only
83
Consider the following statements under AS-3 regarding classification of activities : (i) Cash received from issue of debentures is classified as financing activity. (ii) Dividend paid is classified as financing activity, whereas dividend received is an investing activity (for non-financial enterprises). (iii) Acquisition of machinery by issue of shares is disclosed as a cash outflow under investing activity. (iv) Repayment of bank loan is classified as financing activity. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
A. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
84
Assertion
Answer
C. (A) is true, (R) is false
85
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding working capital?
Answer
C. Net working capital represents the excess of current assets over current liabilities
86
Which of the following statements is/are not true about holding companies? (i) As per AS 21, every holding company should mandatorily prepare consolidated balance sheet. (ii) Excess of the cost of investment over the value of proportionate net assets of subsidiary co. is known as capital reserve. (iii) Any profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities of subsidiary company is a capital profit or loss.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
87
A company which retains voting power or control of another company, in spite of the fact that the company itself is already controlled by another entity is :
Answer
D. Intermediate 138/2025 18 A
88
Which of the following statements is/are not true about minority interest? (i) Represents the claims of the outside shareholders of a subsidiary. (ii) The term “controlling interest” is synonymous with minority interest. (iii) The amount of minority interest is shown on the liabilities side of Balance Sheet between the Share Capital and Reserves and Surplus.
Answer
D. (ii) only
89
Which of the following lists attached to Statement of Affairs gives the list of assets which are specifically pledged in favour of fully secured and partly secured creditors?
Answer
B. List B
90
The order of priority in paying off debts in winding up shall be follows :
Answer
A. Cost and expenses of winding up
91
Salaries due to clerk is preferential for a period not exceeding
Answer
B. 4 months
92
Dividend paid by subsidiary to its holding company, out of capital profits, should be credited by the parent company in its :
Answer
C. Shares invested in Subsidiary account
93
In which of the following cases can winding up be ordered by the Tribunal which are grounds for compulsory winding up : (i) If a company has, by special resolution, resolved that the company be wound up by the Tribunal. (ii) If the company has made default in filing with the Registrar its financial statements or annual returns for immediately preceding five consecutive financial years. (iii) If the company’s actions are detrimental to the integrity and sovereignty of India.
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
94
The following facts are related to M/s Omega Co Ltd. you are required to find profit as per financial accounts : Profit as per Costing Books Rs. 17,232 Over recovery of selling expenses Rs. 1,700 Dividend received Rs. 1,100 Goodwill written off Rs. 1,200 Under recovery of administration expense Rs. 720 Finished stock
Answer
B. Rs. 17,480
95
The following attributes are related to characteristics of Job costing. Which one of the following is
Answer
A. re) incorrect? (i) There is predetermined flow line for the job and as such careful routing and scheduling is prerequisite for successful compliance. (ii) The production cycle is long as of production cycle of long-term contracts. (iii) Each job is given a unique job number; each job is a separate cost unit and costed independently. (iv) Consulting firms, printing companies and ship Building firms usually use job order costing. (v) Selling and administration costs are not considered as part of Job and are shown separately on the cost sheet and income statement.
96
A Company sells its products at Rs. 30 per Unit. In a period when it produces and sells 16000 units, it incurs a loss of Rs. 10 per unit. If the volume is raised to 40,000 units, it earns a profit of Rs. 8 per unit. Calculate variable cost per unit
Answer
B. Rs. 10
97
You are given the following figures in respect of a firm following process account. Based on FIFO Method, calculate the value of cost per unit of Equivalent Production : Opening stock of work in progress (30 per cent complete) 2000 Units Rs. 6,000 Unit introduced during the current period 7,000 Units Unit completed during the current period 8400 Units (transferred to the next process) Closing stock of work in work in progress (50 per cent complete) 600 Units Cost incurred during the current period Rs. 69,200
Answer
D. Rs. 8.5
98
Which of the following fact (s) correctly describe the characteristics of various standards in standard costing? Standards Basic characteristic I. Current Standard 1. Change in trend of price and efficiency II. Attainable Standard 2. Cash budgeting, inventory valuation III. Ideal Standard 3. Use over short period of Time IV. Basic Standard 4. No provision for Shrinkage, spoilage I II III IV
Answer
D. 3 2 4 1 138/2025 21 A
99
You are given attributes of Periodic and perpetual inventory system. Which combination of attributes are incorrect with respect to characteristics of both system of maintaining inventory? Combination Periodic Inventory System Perpetual Inventory System I. Inventory is ascertained on the basis of Inventory is ascertained on the physical count basis of records II. Inventory is calculated as a residual figure Inventory is calculated by i.e. Closing inventory = applying method of Opening + Purchases – cost of goods sold valuation of inventories like FIFO, LIFO III. It doesn’t require closing down of work for It requires closing down for stock taking stock taking IV. It facilitates the continuous stock It doesn’t facilitate the checking continuous stock checking
Answer
B. (II), (III) and (IV) only
100
Calculate cost of production from the following details of a company : Cost of goods sold Rs. 2,05,000 Sales Rs. 3,00,000 Opening stock of finished goods Rs. 75,000 Closing stock of finished goods Rs. 50,000
Answer
D. Rs. 1,80,000 ———————— 138/2025 22 A

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