| Post Name | Divisional Accounts Officer Paper II - Kerala State Electricity Board Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 120/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 192/2024 |
| Date of Test | 30 October 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following best distinguishes a private company from a public company under the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Restriction on transfer of shares
2
A "small company" under the Companies Act, 2013 is primarily deļ¬ned with reference to:
Answer
A. Paid-up share capital and turnover
3
A producer company is unique because it is formed by:
Answer
B. Persons engaged in activities connected with primary produce
4
In which situation can a One Person Company (OPC) mandatorily convert into a private or public company?
Answer
B. On voluntary declaration of the member
5
Which of the following entities cannot be classiļ¬ed as a public company?
Answer
A. A subsidiary of a private company
6
An unlimited company diļ¬ers from other forms because:
Answer
B. Members have liability extending to their personal assets
7
At the time of incorporation, the Memorandum of Association primarily serves the purpose of:
Answer
B. Deļ¬ning the scope of activities and powers of the company
8
Which of the following is not mandatory for incorporation of a company under the Act?
Answer
B. Certiļ¬cate of commencement of business
9
If the Registrar of Companies ļ¬nds defects in incorporation documents, he may:
Answer
B. Issue a notice to rectify within a prescribed period
10
A group of professionals plans to incorporate a company limited by guarantee without share capital. Which aspect will primarily deļ¬ne members 'liability'?
Answer
B. Extent of guarantee undertaken in the Memorandum
11
The certiļ¬cate of Incorporation issued by the Registrar is:
Answer
A. Conclusive evidence that all incorporation requirements have been complied with
12
Which of the following best illustrates the doctrine of "ultra vires" in relation to incorporation?
Answer
B. Company engaging in activities beyond its Memorandum objects
13
The purpose of registering a charge with the Registrar is to:
Answer
A. Protect the rights of creditors and ensure public notice
14
If a company creates a charge but fails to register it within the prescribed time:
Answer
A. The charge becomes void against the liquidator and creditors
15
A company has created a ļ¬oating charge over its assets. This charge crystallizes into a ļ¬xed charge when:
Answer
B. The company ceases operations or defaults on obligations
16
Which of the following charges requires mandatory registration under the Act?
Answer
B. Mortgage on immovable property
17
While registering a charge, which of the following parties is primarily responsible for ļ¬ling the particulars with the Registrar?
Answer
C. The company creating the charge
18
If a charge is registered but later satisļ¬ed in full, what step must the company take?
Answer
A. File satisfaction of charge with the Registrar within prescribed time
19
Which of the following company is correct in meaning about the types of new generation companies?
Answer
C. NIDHI company is a company which is incorporated for the mutual beneļ¬t amongst its members
20
The Articles of Association is obligatory for the following company/companies :
Answer
D. All of the above
21
From the following who cannot be a director of a company as per the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
D. All of the above
22
From the following, which company/companies should constitute CSR Committee as per the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
D. All of the above
23
What is the maximum number of directorship in public companies at the same time?
Answer
B. 10 Companies
24
A general meeting of a company may be called by giving not less than:
Answer
D. 21 Days Notice
25
The management of day-to-day aļ¬airs of a company are vested in the hands of:
Answer
B. Key Managerial Personnel
26
IASB Stands for:
Answer
B. International Accounting Standards Board
27
Reserve capital refers to:
Answer
B. Uncalled portion of subscribed capital kept as reserve
28
Provision is kept for meeting:
Answer
A. A known liability
29
From the following, inventories do not include:
Answer
C. Bills Receivables
30
TDS deducted and payable must be shown as:
Answer
D. A current liability on the Balance Sheet
31
A process of determining issue price of a security by the demand and supply forces in the capital market is called:
Answer
B. Book Building
32
Contingent liabilities are shown as:
Answer
A. A foot note to the Balance Sheet
33
According to Section 139(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, who shall appoint an auditor for a company?
Answer
B. Shareholders in the annual general meeting
34
As per Section 139(2), what is the maximum tenure of an individual auditor in a listed company?
Answer
B. 5 years
35
As per Section 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the auditor's duty regarding reporting on accounts?
Answer
B. To report on true and fair view of ļ¬nancial statements
36
What is the requirement regarding rotation of individual auditors for listed companies under the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
C. Mandatory rotation every 5 years
37
Who can remove an auditor from oļ¬ce before the expiry of his term as per Section 140 of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Shareholders in general meeting
38
Section 144 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:
Answer
C. Restrictions on rendering of certain services by auditors
39
Who appoints the ļ¬rst directors of a company?
Answer
C. Subscribers of the memorandum
40
What is the minimum age for appointment of a director as per Section 164 of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
A. 18 years
41
What is the tenure of an independent director as per Section 149 (10) of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
C. Up to 5 years
42
Which companies are required to have at least one director who has stayed in India for a total period of not less than 182 days in the previous calendar year?
Answer
D. Every company
43
What is the requirement regarding DIN (Director Identiļ¬cation Number) for directors under the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Mandatory for all directors
44
Which of the following is a requirement for a person to be appointed as an independent director under Section 149(4) of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Must not have any pecuniary relationship with the company
45
What is the minimum number of Board meetings required to be held in a year as per Section 285 of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
B. 4
46
What is the notice period required for calling a Board meeting as per Section 173(3) of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
A. Not less than 7 days
47
Who can participate in a Board meeting through video conferencing?
Answer
A. Only directors
48
Resolutions can be passed by circulation as per Section 175 of the Companies Act, 2013:
Answer
B. For certain speciļ¬ed matters only
49
Who generally gives notice for a Board Meeting?
Answer
A. Company Secretary
50
Is it mandatory for a company to have a Chairman for Board Meetings?
Answer
B. No, not mandatory
51
As per Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act when is the communication of a proposal complete?
Answer
C. When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
52
In order to convert a proposal into a promise under Indian Contract Act, the acceptance must
Answer
A. Be absolute and unqualiļ¬ed and be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner unless the proposal prescribes otherwise
53
Who is considered competent to contract under the Indian Contract Act?
Answer
C. A person who is of the age of majority, of sound mind and not disqualiļ¬ed from contracting by any law
54
Which of the following best describes when an agreement is considered void due to a 'mistake'?
Answer
D. When both parties are mistaken about a fact essential to the agreement
55
David owes money to Bharath under a contract. It is agreed between David, Bharath and Ismail that Bharath shall thenceforth accept Ismail as his debtor instead of David. What is the eļ¬ect of this agreement?
Answer
B. The old debt of David to Bharath is discharged and a new debt from Ismail to Bharath is created
56
Which of the following best deļ¬nes a contingent contract?
Answer
A. A contract to do or not to do something, depending on the happening or non-happening of an event collateral to the contract
57
Abin agrees to sell goods to Babu that were believed to be in transit from London to Chennai. Unknown to both parties, the ship carrying the goods had already been lost at sea and the goods destroyed before the contract was made. What is the legal status of this contract?
Answer
C. The contract is void
58
Anil promises to paint a picture for Suresh by a certain day, at a certain price. Anil dies before the day. What is the status of the contract?
Answer
C. The contract cannot be enforced by either Anil's representative or by Suresh
59
Bindiya promises to deliver goods to Raji's warehouse on January 1, 2025. On that day, Bindiya brings the goods to Raji's warehouse after the usual closing hour and the goods are not received. Has Bindiya performed her promise?
Answer
B. No, because she failed to deliver the goods within the usual business hours
60
According to Indian Contract Act, when are two or more persons said to have given consent?
Answer
A. When they agree upon the same thing in the same sense
61
What is a "bailment"?
Answer
D. The delivery of goods by one person to another for a speciļ¬c purpose, with the expectation of their return
62
According to the Law of Agency, if a principal chooses to ratify unauthorised actions taken by an agent, which of the following statements is true?
Answer
B. The Principal assumes all liabilities for those actions
63
According to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which of the following category is included in the deļ¬nition of a 'workman'?
Answer
D. Apprentice
64
What is the nature of the power exercised by the appropriate government while making a reference of an industrial dispute under Section 10(1) of the industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Answer
C. Administrative
65
According to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, who is responsible for constituting a Works Committee in an industrial establishment?
Answer
B. Employer
66
Which of the following situations would be considered an illegal strike under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947? i. A strike has commenced in a public utility service without giving notice of strike to the employer. ii. A strike has commenced in a public utility service after the conciliation proceedings and seven days before the conclusion of such proceedings. iii. A strike has started in a public utility service within fourteen days of giving such notice. iv. Strike has commenced during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any of the matter which is not covered by the settlement or award.
Answer
B. Both i and iii
67
As per Section 25-O of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, within what time period must an employer who intends to close down an undertaking apply for prior permission?
Answer
A. 90 days
68
Who is the appellate authority to hear an appeal against the decision of the Grievance Redressal Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Answer
D. Employer
69
Under the following case, in which circumstances is a workman entitled to receive compensation for being laid oļ¬? i. If the employee refuses to accept any alternative employment oļ¬ered in the same establishment from which he has been laid-oļ¬. ii. The employee refused the alternative employment because it required special skills or technical knowledge that he did not possess. iii. If the employee fails to report for work at the establishment at the appointed time during normal working hours at least once a day iv. The laying - oļ¬ was caused due to a strike on the part of workmen in another part of the establishment.
Answer
C. Only ii
70
Which of the following is not included within the meaning of 'retrenchment' under Section 2(oo) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947? i. Termination of the service of a workman on the ground of continued ill-health. ii. Economic rationalization iii. Installation of new labour saving machines iv All the above
Answer
B. Only i
71
Which of the following statements is correct under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947? i. The appropriate government may refer any industrial dispute to a conciliation oļ¬cer. ii. A conciliation oļ¬cer may, for the purpose of inquiring into any existing industrial dispute enter the premises of the establishment to which the dispute relates, without prior notice. iii. A conciliation oļ¬cer can adjudicate upon the industrial dispute. iv. A conciliation oļ¬cer may enforce the attendance of any person for the purpose of examination.
Answer
C. Only iv
72
Which of the following matters fall within the jurisdiction of the Labour Courts under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947? i. Wages, including the period and mode of payment. ii. Compensatory and other allowances. iii. Hours of work and rest intervals. iv. Leave with wages and holidays
Answer
D. None of the above
73
Which of the following cases laid down the triple test for interpreting the term 'industry' under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Answer
A. Bangalore Water - Supply and Sewerage Board, etc. v. A. Rajappa & others A.I.R 1978 S.C. 548
74
According to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 a person working in a supervisory capacity will be considered a 'workman' only if their monthly salary is below:
Answer
C. Rs. 10,000
75
Which of the following is not a conciliation authority under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Answer
D. Labour Courts
76
As per the Trade Union Act 1926, the creation of a political fund by a Trade Union is
Answer
C. Optional
77
What is the conclusive evidence that shows that the Trade Union has been duly registered under the Trade Union Act?
Answer
B. Certiļ¬cate of Registration
78
How many members' consent is required to change the name of a Registered Trade Union?
Answer
A. 2/3rd of the Total members
79
Which section of the Trade Union Act 1926, deļ¬nes the term 'Trade Union'?
Answer
C. Section 2(h)
80
Within how many days must, a change in address of a registered Trade Union be communicated to the Registrar?
Answer
A. 14 days
81
In which of the following decisions was it held that the employees of Raj Bhavan were Government servants who could not form a trade union?
Answer
B. Rangaswami and Another v Registrar of Trade Union AIR 1962 Mad 231
82
Statement S : Registration of a Trade Union is voluntary Reason R : But Registration provides legal status and immunities
Answer
A. Both S and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of S
83
M, aged 16, joins a Trade union in his factory. His employer argues that he cannot become a member because he is a minor. Under the Trade Union Act, whether M is elgible?
Answer
B. Yes, because the minimum age is 15
84
A registered Trade union failed to ļ¬le annual returns consecutively for three years. The Registrar cancels its registration after giving notice. Is this legal?
Answer
A. Yes, cancellation is valid
85
An oļ¬ce-bearer is disqualiļ¬ed under Section 21A of Trade Union Act 1926 if:
Answer
A. Convicted of oļ¬ence involving moral turpitude with imprisonment
86
In which of the following decisions, it was held that the Registrar has the power to inquire about the legality of the new election of the oļ¬ce bearers of a Trade union?
Answer
B. Mohan Lal v Registrar of Trade Union 1983 Lab IC 1883
87
Trade dispute means
Answer
D. All the above
88
When is occupational disease deemed as injury?
Answer
A. When it is listed in Schedule III of the Employees Compensation Act
89
In which of the following cases, is the employer NOT liable?
Answer
C. Minor injury not causing 3-days disablement
90
Which doctrine is closest to the principle of liability under this Act?
Answer
D. No-fault liability
91
A workman is killed in a terrorist attack inside factory premises. Is the employer liable?
Answer
B. Yes, employment exposed him to special risk
92
What is the signiļ¬cance of Schedule IV in calculating compensation?
Answer
C. Contains relevant factors based on age
93
Which of the following shows indirect extension of liability under Section 12?
Answer
B. Employer becomes liable when contractor fails, then can recover from contractor
94
A workman dies while voluntarily helping colleagues after shift hours inside factory premises. Employer's liability?
Answer
C. Liability, because act was incidental to employment
95
Employer and workman enter contract whereby workman waives future right to claim compensation Legal validity of the Contract?
Answer
A. Void
96
A dependent dissatisļ¬ed with apportionment order of Commissioner may
Answer
D. Appeal to High Court
97
A dependent claims compensation 3 years after accident. Employer objects on limitation. Which is correct?
Answer
B. Commissioner may condone delay if suļ¬cient cause is shown
98
Which condition must be satisļ¬ed for compensation?
Answer
A. Accident must arise out of and in the course of employment
99
An employer is not liable if injury is caused by
Answer
B. Employees' wilful disobedience of safety rules
100
Which situation BEST reļ¬ects "Course of Employment"?
Answer
A. Worker injured while repairing machine as per duty
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