| Post Name | DRAFTSMAN GRADE.I/SUB ENGINEER(Civil) - KERALA WATER AUTHORITY/KSEB Ltd. |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 114/2023 |
| Category Code | 481/2020, 403/2022 |
| Date of Test | 12 July 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
In third angle projection the object is imagined to be placed
Answer
B. Below HP and behind of VP
2
Which of the following statement is incorrect about ellipse?
Answer
C. If a plane cuts the cone parallel to its axis, then the section obtained is an ellipse.
3
The dimension of A3 size drawing sheet is
Answer
B. 297 mm Γ 420 mm
4
The projection lines in orthographic projection are
Answer
A. Parallel to each other
5
The development of a right cylinder of diameter 50 mm and height 60 mm gives a
lateral surface of
Answer
D. Rectangle of length 157 mm and width 60 mm
6
In isometric projection, true length is converted into isometric length by multiplying
it with
Answer
C. 0.82
7
The maximum frictional force developed in a body when it just starts to slide over
another surface is
Answer
C. limiting friction
8
βIf a number of coplanar forces acting on a particle are in equilibrium, then the algebraic
sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force
about the same pointβ is
Answer
D. Varignonβs theorem
9
Resultant of two forces F and 2F which are at an angle of 60 degree apart is
Answer
A. 7P
10
The moment (m) of the force (P) acting on the body at a distance R from the axis of
rotation is represented by
Answer
B. m = PR sinΞΈ
11
From what distance from the base, along the vertical axis, is the centre of gravity of
a right circular solid cone ?
Answer
B. h/4
12
If m < 2j β 3, where m is the number of members and j is the number of joints, the
frame is a
Answer
C. Deficient frame
13
The diameter of a circular plate is 20 cm. What will be its radius of gyration ?
Answer
A. 5 cm
14
The mass of a solid sphere is 2 kg and its radius is 10 cm. Its moment of inertia about
its central axis is
Answer
C. 0.008 kgm2
15
According to the perpendicular axis theorem, the moment of inertia about an axis zz, which is perpendicular to xx and yy, is
Answer
A. I_zz = I_xx + I_yy
16
Which of the following is not a surface force ?
Answer
D. Centrifugal force
17
Relation between Youngβs modulus and shear modulus is
Answer
B. G = E/[2(1 + Ξ½)]
18
The stress developed in a brass rod of diameter 10 mm and length 1 m having a
weight 5 kg is
Answer
A. 0.625 N/mm2
19
Which of the following material does not undergo large deformation before fracture ?
Answer
C. Cast iron
20
What is the maximum deflection developed in a simply supported beam of length L, which is subjected to a point load P at its centre?
Answer
B. PLΒ³/(48EI)
21
What is the angle of inclination of maximum shear stress planes and principal planes ?
Answer
C. 45Β°
22
For a column, the ratio of least unsupported length and smallest radius of gyration
of the cross-sectional area is
Answer
D. Slenderness ratio
23
At the point of contraflexure
Answer
B. Bending moment changes sign
24
The youngβs modulus of Steel is around
Answer
D. 200 GPa
25
The shape of the shear force diagram of a cantilever beam subjected to uniformly
distributed load is
Answer
B. Triangle
26
Units of kinematic viscosity of fluid is
Answer
B. m2/s
27
As the temperature of a gas increases, its viscosity
Answer
A. Increases
28
For Newtonian fluid like water, the velocity gradient and shear force applied are
Answer
C. linearly proportional
29
With respect to pressure measurement, which is the correct correlation ?
Answer
C. P(abs) = P(atm) + P(gauge)
30
What is the relative density of a liquid, which weighs 9 N per liter, when acceleration
due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2 ?
Answer
A. 0.917
31
What is the location of center of pressure of a rectangular vertical plate with 4 m
width and 6 m height measured from the free surface of water ?
Note : the top edge of the plate is coinciding with the water surface.
Answer
D. 4 m
32
The ratio of inertia force to surface tensional force is
Answer
D. Weber number
33
For a fluid flow, the Bernoulliβs equation is obtained from the conservation of
Answer
C. Energy
34
A Pitot tube is used for the measurement of
Answer
A. Fluid velocity
35
Type of turbine through which the pressure of water is a constant
Answer
A. Pelton turbine
36
A Kaplan turbine is
Answer
B. Axial flow reaction turbine
37
In the following list of pumps, which is not a positive displacement pump ?
Answer
C. Centrifugal pump
38
A jet of water with velocity 15 m/s hits a moving vertical plate with 5 m/s. What is the
force exerted by the jet, if its cross sectional area is 1 cm2 ?
Answer
B. 10 N
39
Specific speed of a turbine is expressed as
Answer
C. NβP/H5/4
40
Estimate the specific speed of a centrifugal pump running at 100 rpm working against
a head of 1 m with a flow rate of 100 m3/s.
Answer
A. 1000 rpm
41
A draft tube is not essential for the working of a
Answer
D. Pelton turbine
42
What is the range of coefficient of discharge
Answer
D. 0.9 β 1.0
43
For a cube completely immersed in water, which of the following statements is correct ?
Answer
A. Centre of gravity and centre of buoyancy coincides
44
Which of the following statements are true for an isolated system ?
i. The total energy of the system always remains zero.
ii. The total energy is constant.
iii. The entropy of the system always remains constant.
iv. The entropy of the systems will be greater than or equal to zero.
Answer
B. ii and iv
45
For a closed non-flow thermodynamic system, which of the following property relation
is valid ?
Answer
A. TdS = dH β Vdp
46
If a four stroke cycle diesel engine running at 1000 rpm has a displacement of
20 litres and brake mean effective pressure of 6 bar, what will be its brake power ?
Answer
B. 100 kW
47
In a SI engine, the detonation tendency increases with which of the following ?
i. Increase in compression ratio.
ii. decrease in air inlet temperature.
iii. Increase in load on the engine.
iv. Increase in engine speed.
Answer
Question Cancelled
48
An IC engine working between temperature limits of 477Β°C and 27Β°C consumes 1 kg
of fuel per hour and produces an output power of 4.8 kW. If the heat value of the fuel
is 43200 kJ/kg, what will be the actual efficiency and theoretical maximum efficiency
of the engine ?
Answer
D. 40% and 60%
49
For ideal Otto cycle, which of the following statement is true ?
Answer
B. The heat addition takes place at constant volume
50
If the solar irradiance is 1 sun, what will be the power output from a solar panel with
2 m2 area and conversion efficiency of 20% ?
Answer
A. 400 W
51
The error which occurs while conducting the survey from whole to part and part to
whole is
Answer
A. In whole to part error is localized and in part to whole it is accumulated
52
Reciprocal levelling eliminates the effect of
1. Error due to Earthβs curvature
2. Error due to atmospheric refraction
3. Mistake in levelling staff reading
4. Error due to line of collimation.
Answer
A. 1,2 and4
53
The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is
called
Answer
D. Geodetic surveying
54
Which GPS surveying method is used to establish control points ?
Answer
D. Absolute method
55
The process of determining the elevations of stations from vertical angles and geodetic
lengths at mean sea level is known as
Answer
B. Trigonometric levelling
56
Index frame of theodolite is __________ shaped.
Answer
A. T
57
The representation of general topography of a very steep terrain is possible only by
Answer
C. drawing contours at small interval
58
Grade of vertical curve can be expressed in terms of
Answer
C. Both
59
Which is not a type of building as per NBC ?
Answer
A. domestic
60
Height of habitable room measured from the surface of the floor to the lowest point
of ceiling shall not be less than
Answer
C. 2.75 m
61
The covered area of the usable rooms at any floor level (excluding the area of the
wall) is
Answer
C. Carpet area
62
Which among the following step is used for changing the direction of a stair ?
Answer
D. Winder
63
Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at
Answer
D. All the above
64
Rolled steel joist means
Answer
A. Rolled steel I section
65
Why are bricks soaked in water before using in brick masonry ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
66
The main objective of compaction of concrete is
Answer
D. All the above
67
The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than
Answer
B. 12 mm
68
In m20 concrete mix, numeric 20 represents the
Answer
B. 28 days compressive strength
69
Which Indian standard code is used for ductile detailing of reinforced concrete
structures subjected to seismic forces ?
Answer
D. IS 13920
70
As per IS 399 (1963) : Classification of Commercial Timbers and their Zonal
Distribution, X, Y and Z classification of timber is based on
Answer
A. Availability
71
Which of the following is the example of shallow foundation ?
Answer
A. mat foundation
72
Iron with least carbon content is
Answer
A. Wrought iron
73
The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of
required size and shape is called
Answer
C. dressing of stones
74
Which of this IS code provides specification for 53 grade OPC cement ?
Answer
C. IS 12269 : 1987
75
Which of the following statement is correct about Portland Pozolana Cement (PPC) ?
Answer
C. The long term strength of PPC is more and it has reduced heat of hydration
and permeability.
76
The water quantity to be added for testing the compressive strength of cement is (P = percentage of water required for normal consistency paste, Wβ = weight of cement and Wβ = weight of sand).
Answer
Question Cancelled
77
The shape of the aggregate that is having maximum void ratio
Answer
D. Angular
78
As per IS 283 β1970 the aggregate impact value shall not exceed
Answer
C. 30% by weight for aggregate used for concrete in wearing surface and 45% for
concrete other than wearing surface.
79
The suggested range of slump value for pumpable concrete
Answer
B. 75 β 100
80
A test is done to assess the quality of concrete by ultrasonic pulse velocity method
as per IS : 13311 (Part 1) β 1992. The Pulse Velocity by Cross Probing obtained is
4 km/sec. Then in which concrete quality grading is it belongs to ?
Answer
D. Good
81
Which of the following load combination is used for limit state design of reinforced
concrete structures under ultimate limit state ?
Answer
B. 1.5 dl + 1.5 ll
82
The value for strain of tension steel (Ξ΅_u) for a steel rod with f_y = 500 MPa and E_s = 2 Γ 10β΅ MPa is
Answer
C. 0.0042
83
What is the compressive force obtained from the stress block in IS 456β2000 for an RCC beam with f_ck = 20 MPa, x_u = 200 mm and beam width b = 300 mm?
Answer
A. 432 kN
84
The limiting values of the depth of neutral axis, based on the assumptions given in
IS 456 for a grade of steel of 500 is
Answer
B. 0.46 d
85
As per IS 456 β 2000 the span to effective depth ratio of continuous slab of shorter
spans (up to 3.5 m) with mild steel reinforcement and loading class up to 3 kN/mm2 is
Answer
D. 40
86
The live load for design of staircase for public building is to be taken as per IS 875
Answer
Question Cancelled
87
Unit of measurement of laying wearing course including consolidation in pavement
construction
Answer
A. cubic metre
88
The estimate prepared for the valuation of a property is
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
The property due to its size, shape, location fetches more value, it is known as
Answer
D. monopoly value
90
depreciation of a property is equal to annual sinking plus the interest on the fund
for that year is applicable in
Answer
B. Sinking fund method
91
The present value of interest in a property having an annual income of Rs. 100 for
a year calculated at 10% is
Answer
Question Cancelled
92
For concreting, no deductions shall be made for
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
For obtaining environmental lead for sandy track, lead is multiplied by
Answer
D. 1.4
94
In construction, contractorβs profit is included in
Answer
C. Unit rate of items
95
Interfering float is the difference between
Answer
A. Total float and free float
96
Security deposit submitted for a work is
Answer
Question Cancelled
97
In time cost trade off, the crashing of activities along the critical path using Critical
Path method of network analysis, is starting with the activity having
Answer
B. least cost slope
98
The expected time of an activity having optimistic, pessimistic and most likely time
as 1, 3, 8 days is
Answer
A. 6
99
The type of contract which is usually followed by railway department for
construction is
Answer
C. item rate
100
The type of tender system preferred in the work of highly technical nature in which
accuracy is more important than cost of the work is
Answer
B. limited tender
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