| Post Name | E E G Technician Grade II - Department Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 124/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 410/2022 |
| Date of Test | 26 July 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Choose the correct option Common mode Rejection in Electrophysiology is
Answer
B. Is based on the principle of diļ¬erential ampliļ¬cation
2
Filters are used in Electrophysiology for
Answer
B. Electrical noise could be excluded by allowing signals pass through both high pass and High frequency ļ¬lters
3
Impedance can be reduced by
Answer
C. All contacts should be intact
4
Electrically sensitive patients are (i) Patients who have hyper sensitivity to medicines/drugs (ii) Patients with breeched or oozing skin (iii) These patients require only routine grounding (iv) Patients with central intravenous line
Answer
C. (ii) and (iv)
5
Choose the correct option
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
Functions of ground electrodes are (i) Functions of ground and reference electrodes are same (ii) Ground electrodes allow stray current to pass through (iii) Helps in minimising contamination of signal of interest (iv) Ground and Reference electrodes are always having the same potential
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii)
7
For a safe electrical receptacle, the requisites are
Answer
D. Grounding should be uncompromised
8
High frequency oscillations are (i) identiļ¬ed in routine interictal scalp EEG recordings (ii) Seen only in Epilepsy (iii) Classiļ¬ed into fast Ripples and very high frequency oscillations (iv) Having frequency range of 80 Hz to > 1000 Hz
Answer
C. (i) and (iv)
9
Choose the correct answer Time constant in Electrophysiology is (i) Deļ¬ned as 63% delay time and 63% rise time in a Calibration signal (ii) For a high frequency ļ¬lter, time constant is time taken for calibration to decay from full scale to 63% (iii) Time constant is the product of Resistance and capacitance (iv) Raising the low frequency ļ¬lter will cause prolongation of time constant
Answer
B. (i) and (iii)
10
Computerised/Digital EEG : Pick the correct option (i) Alias signal can interfere with signal of interest in digital EEG (ii) Amplitude and Pen alignment should be constantly monitored and adjusted in digital EEG. (iii) Manipulation of raw data is possible even after completion of test in Digital EEG (iv) Unable to store large volumes of data in smaller spaces
Answer
B. (i) and (iii)
11
Regarding Evoked potentials, Choose the correct statements (i) Visual Evoked potentials are responses from lateral Geniculate body (ii) Level of consciousness of the subject/patients is non signiļ¬cant in brain stem auditory evoked potential recording (iii) The most important response obtained is from the motor cortex in somato sensory Evoked potential (iv) Averaging is needed in all Evoked potential recording
Answer
D. (ii) and (iv)
12
Pace maker for alpha rhythm is
Answer
B. Thalamus
13
Sensory Innervation of sole of foot is by which nerve
Answer
D. Tibial nerve
14
Lesions of Brachial plexus can cause (i) Breathing diļ¬culty (ii) Horner's syndrome (iii) Scapular pain (iv) Numbness of upper limb
Answer
B. (ii) and (iv)
15
F Response and H Reļ¬ex : Following are true (i) Both motor responses (ii) Useful in diagnosing early Radiculopathy (iii) Chrono dispersion is signiļ¬cant H Reļ¬ex (iv) Persistance should be more than 50% in F response
Answer
C. (ii) and (iv)
16
In wrist joint
Answer
B. Carpal bones are eight in number
17
Calculate the Nerve conduction velocity, if the Proximal latency = 7m sec; distal leting = 3m sec and distance between preximal and distal stimulating site is 20 m
Answer
Question Cancelled
18
Fifty year old gentleman presented with Bell's palsy of 6 days this blink reļ¬ex study was normal the inference is
Answer
D. Could also be normal in some cases and prognosis for recovery is good
19
Pick the correct option The Repetitive Nerve stimulation study (RNS) for Neuromuscular Junction disorder shows (i) Decrement in Myaesthemia Gravis is due to reduced safety factor (ii) Post Exercise increment is seen only in presynaptic disorder like Eaton Lambert syndrome (LEMS) (iii) More than 10% Decrement occurs in Myaesthe grar's by slow RNS (iv) Post activation Exhaustion is only seen in presynaps disorders like LEMS
Answer
D. (i) and (iii)
20
Forty two year old gentlemen presented with proximal muscle weakness. Needle EMG (Electromyography) showed the following ļ¬ndings what is your opinion Increased Insertional activity, occasional ļ¬brillation in vastus medialis. Motor unit Action potentials were short duration, low amplitude with polyphasi Early recruitment was also found
Answer
D. Myopathy
21
What is/are the principal goal/s of the electroļ¬agnostic studies?
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
22
Which of the following statements is false with regard to electrodiagnostic studies?
Answer
C. Clinical time course of symptoms and signs are not required for the interpretation of the nerve conduction studies and electromyography
23
Failure to recognise technical factors that inļ¬uence the electrodiagnostic studies can result in diagnosing an abnormalities when none is present which is termed as
Answer
A. Type I error
24
The positively charged particles within the nucleus is
Answer
B. Protons
25
Which of the following is a conductor?
Answer
D. Copper
26
The unit of measurement for the current is
Answer
B. Ampere
27
The figure below shows a battery with a voltage (V_A) connected in series to three resistors (B, C, D). The current running through the three resistors results in a voltage drop across each resistor, V_B, V_C and V_D respectively. Kirchhoff's voltage law is depicted by the equation
Answer
D. V_A = V_B + V_C + V_D
28
What is the frequency of alternating current supply in India for domestic use
Answer
B. 50 Hz
29
Which of the following statement is false regarding capacitance?
Answer
C. Capacitance is measured in Henries
30
A patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathy is referred to the electrophysiology laboratory for nerve conduction study. He has swelling of one limb. What technical diļ¬culty the neurotechnologist can encounter while doing the nerve conduction study?
Answer
D. Reduction in amplitudes will be more for the sensory nerve action potential as compared to compound muscle action potential
31
EEG records the brain activity generated by the
Answer
A. Extracellular ļ¬eld potentials generated by the excitatory and inhibitory post synaptic potentials at the apical dendrites of pyramidal cells in the cerebral cortex
32
The reusable disc electrodes for routine scalp recordings is made of
Answer
B. Silver
33
For the proper artifact free recording of EEG, the impedance between the skin and electrodes should be below
Answer
A. 5KOhm
34
The EEG ampliļ¬er is a diļ¬erential ampliļ¬er which ampliļ¬es
Answer
B. The potential diļ¬erence between input 1 and input 2 while removing the common signals
35
What is the most commonly used sampling rate in commercially available EEG equipments?
Answer
D. 240 Hz
36
Why is the P100 latency used as the central measurement for full ļ¬eld visual evoked potential (VEP) interpretation?
Answer
D. P100 is most stable and consistently identiļ¬ed waveform in all normal subjects
37
What is the usual sweep time set for obtaining brainstem auditory evoked potential in adults
Answer
B. 10 milliseconds
38
Most commonly used nerve to record somatosensory evoked potential in lower limbs
Answer
C. Tibial nerve
39
Multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) is performed for the diagnosis of
Answer
D. Narcolepsy
40
While recording EEG, movement of people near the patient generate the artifact labelled as
Answer
B. Electrostatic artifacts
41
MTLE-HS stands for
Answer
D. Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy - Hippocampal Sclerosis
42
Ebersole type 2 spikes are seen with ___________ epilepsy
Answer
C. Neocortical Temporal Lobe Epilepsy
43
Which of the following EEG ļ¬ndings has a strong association with focal seizures?
Answer
A. Temporal intermittent rhythmic delta activity (TIRDA)
44
Frequency of sleep spindles
Answer
B. 11 to 16 Hz
45
EEG pattern in REM sleep is
Answer
B. Low amplitude, fast theta waves
46
Diļ¬use, bilaterally synchronous 3Hz wave and spike discharges are typical EEG ļ¬ndings of
Answer
A. Absence seizures
47
When people are attentive to an external stimulus or are thinking hard about something, the alpha rhythm is replaced by
Answer
D. Beta
48
Stage 2 sleep is deļ¬ned by the presence of
Answer
B. Sleep spindles and K complexes
49
Triphasic waves are characteristically seen in
Answer
C. Metabolic encephalopathy
50
Neonatal seizures include the following types EXCEPT
Answer
C. Tonic clonic
51
Which of the statements about High frequency oscillations is INCORRECT?
Answer
B. HFOs are best recorded using sphenoidal electrodes
52
True about SREDA is
Answer
D. Lasts for minutes
53
Cortical spreading depression is associated with
Answer
A. Migraine
54
High amplitude slowing can be elicited by _____________ and _______
Answer
D. Hyperventilation, Stage 3 Sleep
55
True about Delta Brush
Answer
D. All of the above
56
Trace alternant, a characteristic pattern of EEG is
Answer
B. Seen in neonates aged 35-38 weeks
57
Beta activity (13-30 Hz)
Answer
D. All of the above
58
EEG measures the ___________ between two electrodes on the scalp
Answer
C. Potential diļ¬erence
59
Trace discontinue, a characteristic pattern of EEG is seen
Answer
A. Seen in preterm neonates aged <32 weeks
60
Sleep spindles can be asynchronous
Answer
C. Until 2 years of age
61
Optimum method of nerve stimulation for NCS is
Answer
B. Start with low current, ļ¬nd site of maximal submaximal potential followed by supramaximal stimulation
62
All of the following causes low CMAP amplitude EXCEPT
Answer
C. Myasthenia Gravis
63
Which of the following is a feature of antidromic method of sensory study when compared to orthodromic method
Answer
D. All of the above
64
Inching technique is commonly used in
Answer
D. All of the above
65
The resting membrane potential in the axon is
Answer
A. -90 mV
66
A patient with sensory paresthesia in lower limbs has normal sensory potentials in NCS possibilities can be all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Dorsal root ganglionopathy
67
Which of the following is CORRECT about demyelinating neuropathy
Answer
D. All of the above
68
After nerve transection, NCS performed in the hyperacute stage can show
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
69
All of the following are true about F response EXCEPT
Answer
C. Absent in sensory radiculopathy
70
Which of the following is NOT CORRECT about H reļ¬ex
Answer
A. Obtained by supramaximal stimulation
71
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Axon reļ¬ex
Answer
B. Comes after F response
72
In a median nerve stimulation study, distal latency is 5.2 ms, conduction velocity is 52m/s CMAP amplitude with wrist stimulation is 4.7 mV and with elbow stimulation is 3.8 mV which of the following will help to suggest a carpal tunnel syndrome in this patient?
Answer
A. Palmar stimulation showing normal CMAP amplitude
73
All are important while performing RNS study EXCEPT
Answer
D. Study limited to distal nerves
74
If 3 Hz RNS shows decremental pattern, perform
Answer
A. 10 second exercise for post exercise facilitation
75
Most commonly used EMG needle is
Answer
C. Concentric needle electrode
76
Short duration, polyphasic MUP with early recruitment with normal interference pattern suggests
Answer
B. Myopathy
77
In blink reļ¬ex
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
78
While eliciting SSR
Answer
D. All of the above
79
You are asked to perform SSEP in a patient with suspected Creutzfelts Jacob Disease (CJD). After the procedure, you are expected to
Answer
A. Discard the electrode
80
While performing electrodiagnostic study in an ICU patient, following precautions needs to be taken:
Answer
D. All of the above
81
Which one of the following ļ¬ndings will not be seen in EEG of a normal term baby?
Answer
B. POSTS (Positive Occipital Sharp Transients of Sleep)
82
The classical 3/sec spike wave discharge is most typical and most pronounced in
Answer
D. Petit mal absence
83
Which of the following is not a feature of Fourteen and Six Hertz positive bursts?
Answer
D. Commonly seen in elderly individuals
84
Which of the following is the typical EEG ļ¬nding in sporadic Creutzfeldt Jakob disease?
Answer
A. Short interval, generalised, bilaterally synchronous periodic complexes
85
Which of the following drugs do not cause Generalised periodic discharges when taken in excessive amounts?
Answer
A. Benzodiazepine
86
Which of the following is false about SIRPIDs (Stimulus Induced Rhythmic Periodic or Ictal Discharges)?
Answer
A. Seen in healthy young adults
87
Which of the following is false about 'end of chain phenomenon'?
Answer
B. Normal physiologic pattern
88
The most frequent EEG ļ¬nding in patients with brain tumour is
Answer
A. Focal slow activity
89
When adhering to the appropriate recording techniques, what threshold of micro Volts characterises electrocerebral inactivity, indicating a complete absence of EEG activity?
Answer
B. 2
90
The characteristic EEG ļ¬nding in Lennox Gestaut Syndrome include all except
Answer
D. Short interval periodic epileptiform discharges
91
Which of the following statements are correct about the eļ¬ect of cooling on Nerve conduction study (i) Higher amplitude and longer duration compound motor action potentials (ii) Lower amplitude and shorter duration compound motor action potentials (iii) Higher amplitude and longer duration sensory nerve action potentials (iv) Lower amplitude and shorter duration sensory Nerve Action potentials
Answer
A. (i) and (iii)
92
The key to diļ¬erentiating chronic neuropathic from chronic myopathic motor unit action potential is
Answer
C. Assessment of recruitment
93
In Neurogenic Thoracalic Outlet Syndrome, abnormal ļ¬ndings in Sensory Nerve Conduction may be seen in (i) Median Nerve (ii) Ulnar Nerve (iii) Median Antebrachial Cutaneous Nerve (iv) Lateral Antebrachial cutaneous Nerve
Answer
C. (ii) and (iii)
94
The most common cause of drop in amplitude between the wrist and below elbow sites during routine ulnar motor conduction studies is
Answer
B. Martin-Gruber anastomosis
95
Muscles supplied by anterior interosseous Nerve are (i) Flexer Digitorum Profundus (ii) Flexor Pollicis Longus (iii) Pronator Teres (iv) Pronator Quadratus
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
96
In needle electromyography of brachial plexus lesion, myokymic discharges are characteristics of
Answer
D. Radiation plexopathy
97
Variation in the time interval between the ļ¬ring of adjacent single muscle ļ¬bers from the same motor units is termed
Answer
D. Jitter
98
Nerves that originate from roots of brachial plexus are (i) Subscapular nerve (ii) Dorsal scapular Nerve (iii) Suprascapular Nerve (iv) Long Thoracic Nerve
Answer
D. (ii) and (iv)
99
While analysing spontaneous activity during needle electromyography revving engine sound is characteristic of
Answer
B. Myotonia
100
Nerves commonly aļ¬ected in Diabetic amyotrophy are (i) Obturator nerve (ii) Femoral Nerve (iii) Posterior Tibial Nerve (iv) Sciatic Nerve
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
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