| Post Name | E E G Technician Grade II - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 098/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 590/2024 |
| Date of Test | 27 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The Internal auditory artery is a branch of :
Answer
B. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
2
Which structure is part of Rhombencephalon :
Answer
A. Medulla
3
Cerebellar dysfunction can cause all of following EXCEPT :
Answer
C. Motor weakness
4
Resting membrane potential of human skeletal muscle is about :
Answer
D. -90 mV
5
Jacobson's nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?
Answer
C. 9th
6
Which of the following is NOT part of basal ganglia?
Answer
D. Cuneus
7
All of following are structural proteins of muscle EXCEPT :
Answer
A. Myosin
8
Which area is Brodmann area 39?
Answer
B. Angular gyrus
9
Which nerve is a branch of posterior cord of brachial plexus :
Answer
C. Radial nerve
10
All of following are muscles of mastiļ¬cation EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Mylohyoid
11
Electromagnetic induction was discovered by :
Answer
A. Michael Faraday
12
Static magnetic ļ¬elds occur due to all EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Electric currents
13
All of following are solid state electronic devices EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Vacuum tubes
14
Which of the following is a Fermion?
Answer
D. Lepton
15
All are fundamental forces of nature EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Frictional force
16
The father of Artiļ¬cial Intelligence is :
Answer
C. John McCarthy
17
All of following are contributions of Albert Einstein EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Classical mechanics
18
Which of following is the common language for Artiļ¬cial Intelligence?
Answer
B. Python
19
The magnitude of Earth's magnetic ļ¬eld at surface :
Answer
B. 0.25 to 0.65 G
20
ChatGPT was developed by :
Answer
B. OpenAI
21
EEG machine is a __________
Answer
A. Diļ¬erential ampliļ¬er
22
If input 1 is - 10 Ī¼V and input 2 is - 10 Ī¼V What will be the channel output?
Answer
C. Flat waveform, labelled 0 ĀµV
23
Which among the following is not a component of EEG machine?
Answer
C. Digital to analog converter
24
Disc electrodes used in EEG recording are usually coated with
Answer
A. Silver chloride
25
High pass ļ¬lter is also known as
Answer
B. Low frequency ļ¬lter
26
For ideal proper recording, the impedance between skin and electrodes should be below
Answer
D. 5 K ohm (5 kĪ©)
27
When the external noise and power line potentials are similar in both inputs, which of the following removes it from the output?
Answer
A. Common mode rejection
28
What is the usual sampling rate of most commercially available EEG instruments?
Answer
D. 240 Hz
29
Which among the following should be routinely done to ensure electrical safety? i. regular equipment maintenance ii. use ground electrode iii. connect electrodes to appropriate jack of input jack box iv. use extension cords
Answer
B. i, ii, iii
30
Skin and subcutaneous tissues act as _____________
Answer
A. High frequency ļ¬lter
31
Eliciting which of the following waveforms do not require a supramaximal stimulation?
Answer
A. H reļ¬ex
32
Preferred interelectrode distance between active and reference recording electrodes in sensory and mixed nerve recordings inorder to avoid lower amplitude potentials due to cancellation eļ¬ect
Answer
B. 3-4 cm
33
Which of the following does not require an additional reference electrode to be placed while performing EMG recording?
Answer
A. Concentric needle
34
Which of the following units is approximately equal to 6.24 Ć electrons?
Answer
B. 1 coulomb
35
Which of the following law states that I = E/R or current equals voltage divided by resistance?
Answer
A. Ohm's law
36
Net resistance is the sum of individual resistances, when resistors are connected?
Answer
B. in series
37
In property of an electrical circuit that causes it to oppose any change in current is known as ____________
Answer
C. Inductance
38
Electrodiagnostic studies like nerve conduction should never be performed on patients with
Answer
C. external pacing wire
39
EEG depth electrodes may transmit which of the following diseases?
Answer
B. CID (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)
40
If input 1 is -70 mV and input 2 is - 50 mV, the channel output will show ________
Answer
A. upward negative deļ¬ection
41
Which among the following statement is correct regarding the generation of EEG Waveform?
Answer
B. EEG records the post-synaptic potential generated at the apical dendrites of pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex
42
A seven-year-old girl who was diagnoed with moyamoya disease presented with new onset focal seizures. Which among the following activation procedure is contraindicated while performing an EEG?
Answer
C. Hyperventilation
43
Who was the ļ¬rst person to record EEG in the human brain in 1924?
Answer
B. Hans Berger
44
What is the deļ¬nition of Sharp wave?
Answer
B. Transient discharge with a duration of 70-200 msec.
45
A 7 year old boy with normal development presented with multiple staring episodes. He was evaluated with an EEG and the waveforms are depicted below. What will be the probable diagnosis?
Answer
B. Childhood absence Epilepsy
46
Name the montage system with which the electrodes are being connected?
Answer
D. Circumferential Montage
47
Which among the following statement is true regarding the frequency of EEG waveforms?
Answer
A. Delta < Theta < Alpha < Beta
48
A 15 year old girl presented with focal seizure with aura. She was evaluated with an EEG which is shown below. Comment on the focus of the origin of epileptic activity.
Answer
B. Right temporal
49
Which among the following is not true regarding Mu rhythm?
Answer
B. Occipital predominant delta waves
50
A 6 year old girl with normal development presented with episodes of transcient facial deviation associated with drooling of saliva and speech arrest without loss of awareness. These episodes are predominantly described in the night. An EEG was done and is depicted below. What will be the probable diagnosis?
Answer
A. BECTS
51
Which among the following is not true regarding PSOY?
Answer
A. These are occipital predominant alpha waves
52
Frequency of posterior rhythm reaches the adult frequency by the age?
Answer
C. 9-10 years
53
Which among the following statement is not true regarding IED (Interictal Epileptiform discharges)?
Answer
C. IEDs are maximally activated in REM sleep
54
A 15-year-old girl with normal growth and development was admitted with the ļ¬rst episode of GTCS. While asking history she had a past history of myoclonic jerks and falls. The EEG recording is shown below. What will be the probable diagnosis?
Answer
B. Juvenile myoclonic Epilepsy
55
A 15-year-old girl with normal growth and development was brought to the Emergency department at around 5 a.m. According to her father, she woke up from sleep and complained of tummy ache and vomited once following which she became pale and ļ¬oppy and lost consciousness. She was evaluated with an EEG which showed occipital spikes. What will be the probable diagnosis?
Answer
C. Panayiotopoulos Syndrome
56
Comment on the state of the patient based on the following, EEG?
Answer
A. Awake and active state
57
Which among the following is not true regarding SREDA?
Answer
C. Always Pathological
58
A 45-year-old lady presented with new onset seizures and autonomic dysfunction. Her EEG is shown below. What is your comment about the EEG?
Answer
B. Sweat artifact
59
20-year-old girl was admitted for the evaluation of drug refractory seizures. An EEG was performed and whilegiving photic stimulation the following response was obtained. Comment on the abnormality.
Answer
C. Photoparoxysmal response
60
Comment about the following EEG.
Answer
B. Normal sleep EEG
61
F wave study from right median nerve in a patient shows a potential with constant latency and morphology located between the M and the F waves. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this potential?
Answer
D. Collateral sprouting during reinnervation is responsible for this waveform
62
Henneman's size principle refers to which of the following statements?
Answer
A. The orderly recruitment of motor units from the smallest to the larger motor neurons with increasing force of contraction
63
Which of the following technical pitfalls may result in a falsely high decremental response in slow (3 Hz) repetitive nerve stimulation test for myasthenia gravis?
Answer
B. Use of submaximal stimulus
64
Which of the following nerve conduction features in a severely aļ¬ected limb favour root avulsion as the etiology of a suspeced traumatic brachial plexus injury when performed 6 weeks after the injury? i. Normal motor conduction studies ii. Normal sensory conduction studies iii. Fibrillations in the ipsilateral cervical paraspinal muscles
Answer
B. Both (ii) and (iii)
65
What is the pathophysiological basis for contractures in the glycogen storage disease, McArdle's disease?
Answer
C. Failure of relaxation due to ATP deļ¬ciency
66
What is the EMG ļ¬nding in a patient who has weakness due to an upper motor neuron dysfunction?
Answer
A. Reduced activation
67
Which examination table (for patients) is preferable for nerve conduction studies and why?
Answer
C. A wooden table as it is electrically safe and does not conduct electricity
68
A patient has diļ¬culty in relaxing hand muscles and stiļ¬ness of muscles. He is dignosed to have myotonic dystrophy type 1. What is the origin of the abnormal EMG insertional/spontaneous activity in this patient?
Answer
C. Spontaneous discharge of muscle ļ¬bres due to membrane hyper-excitability
69
Which of the following is true regarding blink reļ¬ex study?
Answer
D. R2 latencies vary in the morphology and latency from stimulus to stimulus
70
What is the principle behind electronic averaging?
Answer
D. Randomness of electrical noise
71
Motor conduction study of ulnar nerve with forearm extended at elbow will result in
Answer
B. Falsely slow conduction velocity across elbow
72
A markedly higher amplitude of ulnar motor conduction distally (at wrist) than proximally (below elbow) usually occurs with
Answer
C. A Martin-Gruber anastomosis with crossing ļ¬bres innervating hypothenar muslces
73
Which of the following factors have led to the replacement of single ļ¬bre EMG needle electrodes by concentric needle electrodes in jitter studies?
Answer
B. Concentric needles are disposable
74
Which component of motor unit potential (MUP) is maximally aļ¬ected by the proximity of the muscle ļ¬bres of a motor unit to the needle?
Answer
A. Amplitude
75
A diabetic patient needs evaluation for autonomic neuropathy. Which of the following settings for nerve conduction study is the most appropriate one for the testing of sympathetic function from his hand?
Answer
C. Time base 1000 ms/division, Sensitivity 500 Ī¼V/division, Filters 0.1 Hz - 500 kHz
76
A 50% reduction in sensory nerve amplitudes across two sites of stimulation is not considered conduction block because
Answer
B. The normal temporal dispersion and phase cancellation in sensory nerves can produce marked reduction in amplitude
77
At what age in children does conduction velocities of limbs reach adult values?
Answer
B. 3-5 years
78
Which of the following recordings should be performed at submaximal stimulation?
Answer
A. H reļ¬ex
79
An abnormality due to low temperature is identiļ¬ed with the combination of
Answer
C. High amplitude, prolonged peak latency, low conduction velocity
80
Which of the following exercise tests simulates fast repetitive nerve stimulation?
Answer
D. 10 second exercise test
81
Identify this wave form
Answer
B. Brainstem Auditory Evoked potentials
82
A 17 year old girl presented with progressive numbness and weakness of her left hand of 1 year duration. No history of neck pain or bladder involvement. On examination there was prominent wasting and weakness of the thenar and less prominently, the hypothenar muscles with weakness of left thumb abduction. Sensation was impaired over little ļ¬nger, ring ļ¬nger, medial forearm and arm. Nerve conduction study showed low CMAP amplitude in both the median and ulnar motor nerves, preferentially aļ¬ecting the median-innervated thenar muscles. Median and ulnar distal latencies and conduction velocities were slightly slowed. The sensory nerve conduction studies showed normal median SNAP and the ulnar SNAP is low in amplitude. What is the diagnosis?
Answer
D. Neurogenic thoraic outlet syndrome
83
The reasons for a normal SNAP in an area of numbness are all except that
Answer
A. The lesion is a chronic neuropathy
84
Prolongation of the absolute latency of the EP (N9) waveform in somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEP) indicates what?
Answer
B. Peripheral neuropathy
85
The following are features of primary demyelinating polyneuropathy except
Answer
D. Markedly decreased motor and sensory amplitudes
86
Which among the following is used intraoperatively to monitor motor pathway such as corticospinal tract?
Answer
A. Motor Evoked Potentials (MEP)
87
Single-Fiber Electromyography (SFEMG) is used for evaluation of which disease?
Answer
C. Myasthenia gravis
88
Myopathies with denervating features are all except
Answer
D. Mytonia congenita
89
Conditions associated with small, short, polyphasic motor unit action potentials are all except
Answer
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
90
A 25 year old lady was admitted in intensive care unit for 2 weeks with severe pneumonia and sepsis. She required ventilator support for 1 week. She developed generalized weakness, numbness and wasting. NCS study showed reduced CMAP and SNAP amplitude with normal latency and conduction velocity. RNS was normal. The most suitable diagnosis is
Answer
C. Critical illness neuropathy
91
Name the test that measure brain function equivalent to EEG in that the same neuronal sources that generate electrical activity also give rise to magnetic ļ¬elds.
Answer
D. Magnetoencephalography (MEG)
92
Which type of Visual Evoked Potential (VEP) is used for young children or other patients who cannot maintain focus on a checkerboard pattern or patients whose visual acuity is so poor that they cannot diļ¬erentiate between the dark and the light squares?
Answer
A. Flash VEP
93
What are the EEG criteria to diagnose brain death? 1. The EEG with minimum of eight scalp electrodes and an inter electrode distance of at least 10 cm. 2. EEG should show electro cerebral silence, which necessitates no electrical potentials of more than 5 mV. 3. 30-minute recording of EEG is required. 4. EEG should show electro cerebral silence, which necessitates no electrical potentials of more than 2 mV.
Answer
D. 1, 3 and 4
94
What are true about 'Trace discontinu' in EEG? 1. An important EEG maturational milestone, as it is the ļ¬rst EEG pattern to emerge that diļ¬erentiates wakefulness from sleep in the premature infant. 2. It consists of bursts of high-amplitude (ā¤200 Ī¼V) activity separated by periods of relative quiescence with amplitudes of less than 25 Ī¼V. 3. The bursts are composed of normal theta and delta activity. 4. By 32 to 34 weeks of conceptional age, the trace discontinu pattern is well developed.
Answer
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
95
This is the EEG of a 4 month old child with developmental delay and seizures in the form of ļ¬exor spasm. What is the abnormality shown in EEG?
Answer
B. Hypsarhythmia
96
What are the indications for invasive EEG? 1. To deļ¬ne seizure generator and tailor surgical resection. 2. Mapping of cortical function. 3. Relationship existing between lesion and seizure focus. 4. For prognosis
Answer
D. All
97
All features are true about triphasic waves except
Answer
C. They are commonly seen in primary generalized epilepsy
98
What is known as BANCAUD phenomenon?
Answer
B. Unilateral failure of the alpha rhythm to attenuate with eye opening occurs with posterior subcortical lesions
99
What is the average size of cortical sources that produce typical scalp EEG potentials?
Answer
D. 6 cmĀ²
100
Weakness or paralysis of the serratus anterior characteristically results in "winging" of the scapula. Which nerve paralysis cause this?
Answer
C. Long thoracic nerve
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