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Kerala PSC ECG Technician – Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges Previous Question Paper – 191/2023

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Post NameECG Technician - Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges
Question Paper Code191/2023
Category Code259/2022
Date of Test7 December 2023
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
The endocrine gland which becomes inactive and shrinks after puberty :
Answer
C. Thymus
2
The vitamin which act both as vitamin and hormone :
Answer
D. Vitamin D
3
The cranial nerves which act both as sensory and motor nerves :
Answer
A. 5, 7, 9, 10
4
The pigment which gives light yellow colour to the urine :
Answer
C. Urochrome
5
Part of the brain that controls heartbeat :
Answer
A. Medulla oblongata
6
The three pairs of vertebrochondral ribs :
Answer
B. 8, 9, 10
7
The type of joint between knee joints :
Answer
D. Hinge
8
The connective tissue that connects two bones to each other :
Answer
B. Ligaments
9
The change in electrical potential with the passage of pulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell :
Answer
B. Action potential
10
EKG stands for :
Answer
C. Electrocardiography
11
The wall of heart is made up of :
Answer
D. Both
12
Which of the following is known as mitral valve?
Answer
B. Bicuspid valve
13
The conditions that affect normal heart beat are :
Answer
D. All of them
14
The opening of aortic arch is guarded by :
Answer
C. Semilunar valve
15
The space in which heart is located in the thoracic cavity in between lungs is known as :
Answer
B. Mediastinum
16
The instrument used to evaluate function of heart is :
Answer
B. Electrocardiograph
17
The normal duration of one cardiac cycle is :
Answer
A. 0.8 second
18
Intercalated discs are present in :
Answer
C. Cardiac muscle
19
Coronary artery supply blood to :
Answer
D. Heart
20
ECG is used to determine which parameter of heart :
Answer
D. All of them
21
Pulmonary circulation start from :
Answer
A. Right ventricle
22
Sphygmomanometer is the instrument used to measure :
Answer
C. Blood pressure
23
The correct sequence of conducting system of heart is :
Answer
B. SA node – AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibres
24
The first sound in heart beat is caused by :
Answer
B. Closing of AV valve
25
Normal value of stroke volume is :
Answer
A. 70 ml
26
Double circulation is present in :
Answer
C. Aves and Mammals
27
Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer
A. Volume of blood ejected from left ventricle per heart beat is stroke volume
28
Which one of the following is known as pacemaker of human heart?
Answer
B. SA Node
29
A person with headache and chest pain consulted a Physician. Doctor checked his blood pressure and said it is due to hypertension. Which of the following is his possible systolic pressure?
Answer
D. 146
30
Chamber of heart which receive deoxygenated blood from all parts of the body is :
Answer
C. Right auricle
31
Increase in heartbeat is :
Answer
A. Tachycardia
32
In ECG QRS complex represent :
Answer
B. Depolarisation of ventricle
33
The muscle which is immune to fatigue is :
Answer
A. Cardiac muscle
34
The average cardiac output of a normal resting person is :
Answer
D. 5 litres/minute
35
Which of the following has thickest wall?
Answer
C. Left ventricle
36
Which of the following is not a reason for myocardial oxygen supply demand imbalance?
Answer
C. Coronary vasodilation
37
Which of the following is non fibrin specific fibrinolytic agent?
Answer
D. Streptokinase
38
Least commonly involved cardiac valve in rheumatic heart disease is :
Answer
A. Pulmonary valve
39
Electro Cardiography recording on thermal paper is done using :
Answer
B. Heated stylus alone without any ink
40
Atrial fibrillation affects :
Answer
C. Both atria are involved
41
Which of the following statement is wrong regarding basic life support if no normal breathing or no pulse felt in adult patient?
Answer
D. Connect to ventilator and defibrillator even before starting other measures
42
If there is single rescuer and adult patient has no breathing or only gasping, pulse not felt, the Cardiopulmonary Resusciatation
Answer
C. PR] until the arrival of automatic external defibrillator should be :
43
Regarding the chest compression during cardiopulmonary resusciatation of adult patient, which of the following statement is true?
Answer
C. Allow for full chest recoil after each compression
44
For pediatric age group cardiopulmonary resusciatation, when two rescuers are available the ratio of compression to breath is :
Answer
C. 15 : 2
45
What is the default mode of cardioverter defibrillator kept in emergency departments worldwide?
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
Regarding standardization of ECG which of the following is correct?
Answer
A. In normal standardization 1 mV equals 10 mm
47
ECG lead wire tip with green colour code corresponds to :
Answer
D. Left leg
48
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding arm lead reversal? (i) Complexes are negative in lead I (ii) Lead aVR looks like lead aVL (iii) Precordial transition is reversed
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
49
Prominent U waves in ECG are seen in :
Answer
C. Hypokalemia
50
In an ECG with normal QRS axis :
Answer
B. QRS is positive in lead I and positive in lead aVF
51
Underdamping in ECG results in all except :
Answer
D. Elevation of ST segment
52
RR interval variation in an ECG is caused by all except :
Answer
C. Early repolarization
53
PR interval in ECG represents :
Answer
D. All of the above
54
Which of the following is not feature of left ventricular hypertrophy?
Answer
D. Right axis deviation
55
Chronological order of ECG changes in acute myocardial infarction :
Answer
C. Tall T waves, ST segment elevation, Q waves
56
Artefacts in ECG can be produced by all except :
Answer
A. Lead misplacement
57
Which of the following comes in the bandwidth recommended for diagnostic ECG in adults is?
Answer
A. 0.05-100 Hz
58
T wave in ECG is caused by :
Answer
D. Ventricular repolarization A 9 191/2023
59
Pre-requisites for a good ECG recording include all except :
Answer
C. Patient should hold respiration during recording
60
Pathological Q wave in ECG is best described by :
Answer
B. Depth more than 25% of R wave and width more than 1 mm
61
Technical dextrocardia is caused by :
Answer
A. Right and left arm lead reversal
62
How will you calculate heart rate from ECG if the patient is in atrial fibrillation?
Answer
C. Number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds Ă— 10
63
Position of horizontal lead V6 is :
Answer
A. Fifth left intercostal space mid axillary line
64
All are causes of ST segment elevation in ECG except :
Answer
D. Subendocardial ischemia
65
Low voltage complexes in ECG is not seen in :
Answer
A. Children
66
Lewis lead in ECG is used :
Answer
D. recording atrial activity
67
Patient tremor artefacts closely mimics which of the following in ECG?
Answer
B. Atrial fibrillation
68
T wave inversion leads V1 to V3 is seen :
Answer
A. Persistent juvenile pattern
69
Wide QRS is seen in all except :
Answer
C. Fascicular block
70
Augmented unipolar limb leads were introduced by :
Answer
C. Goldberger
71
Normal PR interval in an adult patient is :
Answer
C. 120-200 msec
72
The rate of fibrillary waves in atrial fibrillation is :
Answer
B. 350-600 per minute
73
Which of the following electrolyte change in the body causes prolongation of QT interval of ECG?
Answer
D. Hypocalcemia
74
Which of the following treadmill protocol is suitable for frail patients or those who recover from a recent myocardial infarction?
Answer
C. Modified Bruce protocol
75
Position of the V3 precordial lead is :
Answer
D. midway between V2 and V4 leads
76
1 mm in the horizontal plane on ECG paper corresponds to :
Answer
C. Both
77
The range of blood pressure that can be measured with a common sphygmomanometer is :
Answer
D. 0-300 mm Hg
78
Which of the following is not a cause for hypertension?
Answer
D. Addison’s disease
79
All of the following are absolute contraindications for treadmill test EXCEPT :
Answer
A. Moderate mitral regurgitation
80
Absolute indications for termination of exercise test are all EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Appearance of multifocal ventricular ectopics
81
Which of the following is specific for continuous wave doppler when compared to pulsed wave doppler in echocardiography?
Answer
C. Ability to record higher frequencies
82
Which of the following is the more specific echocardiographic view to diagnose Mitral valve prolapse?
Answer
D. Parasternal long axis view 191/2023 12 A
83
Mason Likar modification is employed during which of the following investigations :
Answer
B. Treadmill Test
84
Stage 3 of Bruce protocol is equivalent to :
Answer
D. 10.1 METS
85
Which among the following is not an absolute contraindication for treadmill testing?
Answer
A. Moderate aortic stenosis
86
Which among the following is the least specific exercise ECG change for inducible ischemia?
Answer
C. Rapidly Upsloping ST depression
87
All of the following are coronary intravascular imaging modalities except :
Answer
C. Excimer laser
88
All of the following are echocardiographic ultrasound modes except :
Answer
C. G mode
89
Holter monitoring is useful in the diagnosis of all of the following except :
Answer
A. LV dysfunction
90
All are components of the cardiac ICU monitor except :
Answer
B. X ray tube
91
What is the maximum predicted heart rate for a male patient of age 45 years?
Answer
D. 175 A 13 191/2023
92
All of the following are shockable heart rhythms except :
Answer
B. Pulseless Electrical activity
93
Seller’s grading is for :
Answer
C. Both of the above
94
Following are methods to invasively assess cardiac output except :
Answer
A. Gorlin’s formula
95
According to the Revised NASPE/BPEG Generic Code for antibradycardia pacing all of the following are correct except :
Answer
B. Position IV-Multisite pacing
96
Diseases of ____________ produces sensorineural hearing loss.
Answer
D. Cochlea
97
Parts of pure tone audiometer are all except :
Answer
C. Probe
98
Conductive pathway of hearing includes all except :
Answer
A. Vestibulocochlear nerve
99
Pure Tone audiogram measures the :
Answer
B. Threshold of hearing
100
Sound waves travel fastest in :
Answer
A. Solids

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