| Post Name | ECG Technician - Kerala State Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 100/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 271/2023 |
| Date of Test | 23 August 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The haemoglobin of RBC after 120 days of lifespan gets converted ļ¬rst into
Answer
D. Biliverdin
2
The volume of air used by a man to ļ¬ll a balloon is
Answer
B. ERV
3
At which point in ECG the repolarisation of atrium occurs
Answer
C. QRS wave
4
Total number of bones in the skull of a man is
Answer
A. 29
5
Which is the "Resting membrane potential" of a neuron ?
Answer
D. ā70 mv to ā80 mv
6
The pigment which gives red colour to haemoglobin is
Answer
A. Porphyrin
7
Clavicle bone and scapula bone of human beings together constitute
Answer
B. Pectoral girdle
8
The Renal corpuscle of nephron includes
Answer
D. Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule
9
The tissue which connects muscle to bone
Answer
A. Tendon
10
The nursing cell which nourishes the sperm is
Answer
D. Sertoli cells
11
Which of the following chambers of the heart contains blood with a relatively high oxygen content ?
Answer
A. Left ventricle
12
The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents back ļ¬ow of blood into the
Answer
C. Right ventricle
13
The ļ¬rst heart sound is heard when the
Answer
C. Atrio-Ventricular valves close
14
Double circulation is absent in
Answer
C. Fish
15
Lymphatic vessels of small intestine that absorb fatty acid and glycerol are
Answer
B. Lacteals
16
The atrio-ventricular septum of heart is composed of
Answer
C. Fibrous tissue
17
Choose the correct pathway of blood
Answer
A. Lungs-Left auricle-left ventricle-aorta-body ā venacava ā right auricle-right ventricle
18
Cardiac output is inļ¬uenced by
Answer
C. Heart rate and stroke volume
19
The most accurate deļ¬nition of artery is a vessel that
Answer
C. Transports blood away from the heart
20
Chordae tendinae are present in
Answer
B. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves
21
The reason for delay in travel of cardiac impulse from atria to ventricles is to
Answer
A. Allows time for the atria to empty their blood into the ventricles before ventricular contraction begins
22
The unit of blood pressure measurement is
Answer
D. Millimetres of mercury
23
The constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to maintain the contractions and relaxations that keep the heart pumping is provided by
Answer
B. Coronary arteries
24
The layer of heart wall responsible for the contraction and relaxation that results in the pumping of the heart is
Answer
D. Myocardium
25
Choose the correct pair. i. Left ventricle ā thickest of all chambers ii. Left ventricle ā pumps oxygenated blood to the body iii. Left ventricle ā thinner than right ventricle iv. Left ventricle ā pumps blood to lungs
Answer
A. i and ii
26
The heart is located in the thoracic cavity in between the lungs in a space called
Answer
C. Mediastinum
27
Which of the following statements is correct about the function of pericardial ļ¬uid ?
Answer
A. It acts as a lubricant between the heart and the pericardium
28
Cardiac muscle are regulated by
Answer
C. Autonomic nervous system
29
On examination of a blood vessel in an anatomy class, three layers were observed-an inner endothelial layer, a middle thin layer of smooth muscle with elastic ļ¬bers and an outer collagen ļ¬ber layer. Identify the blood vessel
Answer
C. Vein
30
Hormonal regulation of cardiac output is by
Answer
B. Adrenal medullary hormones
31
In the cardiac cycle, the AV valves remain closed due to
Answer
A. Increasing ventricular pressure
32
Choose the correct option to complete the table
Answer
B. a-open, b-open
33
Under what conditions does the SA node increases the number of electrical impulses and cardiac output ?
Answer
A. Exercise
34
If the sinoatrial node fails, in a normal heart, the atrioventricular node (AV node) takes over the pacemaker function. However
Answer
C. Both of the above
35
The cardiac tissue responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmicity of heart is
Answer
B. Nodal tissue
36
The most appropriate investigation to diagnose mitral stenosis in a patient is
Answer
D. Doppler Echocardiography
37
In echocardiography the size of the chambers and function of the heart is assessed in
Answer
A. M mode
38
The natural pacemaker of the heart is
Answer
C. SA node
39
The ļ¬rst letter in the pacemaker code VVI indicates
Answer
B. The chamber that is paced
40
Which among the following is used to give shock to a patient with ventricular ļ¬brillation ?
Answer
A. Deļ¬brillator
41
ICD used to prevent sudden cardiac deaths means
Answer
C. Implantable cardioverter deļ¬brillator
42
The concept of ambulatory ECG monitoring was introduced by
Answer
B. Norman Holter
43
Identify the true statement regarding premature ventricular contraction
Answer
D. All of the above
44
Which among the following is the investigation of choice to diagnose coronary artery disease in a patient with exertional angina ?
Answer
C. Stress electrocardiography
45
Bruce protocol is used in
Answer
A. Treadmill test
46
The following parameters are monitored during exercise ECG EXCEPT
Answer
D. Respiratory rate
47
A treadmill test can be done to
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
48
_________ is used to display heart rate and the ECG tracing in an ICU
Answer
B. Cardiac monitor
49
In cardio version the electric shock is given
Answer
B. At the peak or just after R wave
50
The most accurate method to identify obstruction in coronary arteries is
Answer
C. Cardiac catheterization
51
The symptom of sudden chest pain that occurs due to reduced blood supply to the heart is called
Answer
B. Angina pectoris
52
Which among the following is a wide QRS complex tachyarrhythmia ?
Answer
C. Ventricular tachycardia
53
The rhythm strip obtained to assess atrial arrythmia is
Answer
D. Lead II
54
The normal position of the heart is called
Answer
A. Levocardia
55
Identify the true statement among the following.
Answer
A. The mitral valve has 2 leaļ¬ets and allow blood to ļ¬ow from left atrium to left ventricle
56
The frontal plane ECG leads are
Answer
D. Both 1 and 3
57
The standard Lead I is derived from placement of negative electrode on ________ and positive electrode on __________
Answer
A. Right arm, Left arm
58
The negative electrode of a unipolar lead is considered to be at _________ potential.
Answer
A. Zero
59
Lead V6 is placed on the _________ line.
Answer
C. Midaxillary
60
The total duration of ventricular recovery is represented by
Answer
D. All of the above
61
________ lead (s) are orientated to the cavity of the heart.
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
62
________ in left orientated leads indirectly reļ¬ects transverse conduction time of free wall of left ventricle.
Answer
A. Ventricular activation time
63
QT interval is the interval from
Answer
B. Beginning of QRS complex to end of T wave
64
Electrocardiograph is conventionally standardized so that
Answer
A. 1 mV results in 1 cm deļ¬exion
65
Normal frontal plane QRS axis is between
Answer
D. 0Ā° to +90Ā°
66
Left atrial enlargement in ECG shows all the following except
Answer
C. Tall, single peaked P wave
67
A retrograde P' wave is seen in
Answer
D. Atrioventricular junctional rhythm
68
Which of the following ECG changes are suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy ?
Answer
D. All of the above
69
Which of the following is a feature of Right Bundle Branch Block ?
Answer
A. Lead V1 shows a tall, wide, frequently notched R' deļ¬exion
70
The major components of ventricular activation in complete Left Bundle Branch Block are all except
Answer
B. Early left septal activation
71
The normal T wave has
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
72
S1Q3T3 pattern consists of all except
Answer
B. Tall upright T wave in Lead III
73
Which of the following ECG changes is suggestive of hyperkalemia ?
Answer
C. Tall peaked, widened T wave
74
Osborn waves are characteristically seen in
Answer
B. Hypothermia
75
Which of the following is not seen in Wolļ¬-Parkinson-White syndrome ?
Answer
D. Long PR interval
76
Cardiac rate on an electrocardiogram can be estimated by
Answer
A. Counting the number of RR intervals in a 3 second period and the ļ¬gure is multiplied by 20
77
The following are features of normal sinus rhythm except
Answer
D. Cardiac rate less than 60 beats per minute
78
Sinus bradycardia is not seen in
Answer
C. Exercise
79
Ectopic atrial rhythms include
Answer
D. All of the above
80
Second degree atrioventricular block is characterized by
Answer
B. Intermittent interruption of conduction
81
Medical diagnosis of obesity is based on a BMI cut-oļ¬ point of
Answer
B. 30.0
82
The formula for the body mass index is
Answer
D. A person's weight in kilograms divided by the square of his/her height in meters (kg/mĀ²)
83
What is the current AHA recommendation for exercise in an adult for reduction of cardiovascular risk ?
Answer
A. Atleast 150 minutes of moderate intensity or 75 minutes of strenuous exercise per week
84
All of the following are primordial prevention strategies of cardiovascular disease EXCEPT
Answer
C. Smoking cessation
85
Factors associated with premature atherosclerosis is all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Methemoglobinemia
86
Metabolic syndrome includes all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
A. Underweight
87
All are causes of secondary hypertension EXCEPT
Answer
D. Hypersplenism
88
The currently recommended goal of diabetic therapy in non pregnant adult patients with diabetes mellitus is a glycated haemoglobin of LESS THAN
Answer
D. 7.0%
89
High intensity statin is recommended for all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Diabetic patient aged less than 40 years
90
High intensity statin therapy includes all EXCEPT
Answer
A. 20 mg of Atorvastatin
91
What is the compression to breath ratio in two-person CPR for an adult ?
Answer
B. 30:2
92
The ļ¬ve steps in the Adult Chain of Survival include all the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. Advanced airway placement
93
What is the correct depth of chest compressions in an adult ?
Answer
B. Between 2 and 2.4 inches
94
After providing a shock with an AED you should
Answer
A. Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions
95
Which of the following are treated with synchronized shocks ?
Answer
A. Unstable atrial ļ¬brillation
96
The basal turn of cochlea is represented by
Answer
C. High frequency
97
Average length of Eustachian tube in an adult
Answer
A. 36 mm
98
Olivo-cochlear bundle (Rasmussen's bundle) constitutes
Answer
D. Eļ¬erent auditory pathway
99
Dip in 4K in pure tone Audiogram usually signiļ¬es
Answer
B. Excessive noise exposure
100
Which among the following constitute middle ear transformer function ?
Answer
C. Curved membrane buckling
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