| Post Name | Electrician |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 096/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 093/2024 |
| Date of Test | 19 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The relation between various electrical quantities in a dc circuit is given below. Choose the correct option. (i) I = V/R (ii) I = P/V
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
2
SI units of electric power is
Answer
A. Watts
3
Two lamps 220 V, 100 watts and 220 V, 40 watts are connected in series. When connected to a 220 V supply which lamp will glow more brightly?
Answer
B. 220 V, 40 W
4
Which of the following properties does not hold good for a parallel circuit?
Answer
A. Voltages are additive
5
Two bulbs 250 V, 100 watts and 250 V, 60 watts are connected in parallel to 250 volts supply. Total energy consumed by this circuit for 5 hours continuous operation for one day is
Answer
D. 0.8 kWh
6
N number of resistors each of value R are connected in series. When these resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is decreased by
Answer
C. 1/NĀ²
7
A Nichrome wire with a uniform cross-section has a resistance R ohm. What will be the resistance of another wire with the same material but length and cross-section both doubled?
Answer
A. R
8
A 5Ī© resistance is connected across a battery of 6V having an internal resistance of 1Ī©. What is the current through the resistance?
Answer
B. 1 A
9
An unknown resistance is connected in series with a combination of 60 Ī© and 30 Ī© in parallel. When a voltage of 220 V is applied across the whole circuit it is found that the circuit current is 10 A. What is the value of unknown resistance?
Answer
A. 2 Ī©
10
250V, 200 W incandescent lamp connected to a 250 V variable dc supply is made to verify Ohm's law. The lamp is turned on by applying variable voltage and its resistance is measured. The result obtained indicates that "Ohm's law is not satisļ¬ed". The reason may be :
Answer
B. Temperature is not constant
11
Force between two charged bodies are represented by _________ law.
Answer
C. Coulomb's law
12
The term analogous to resistance in magnetic circuit is
Answer
C. Reluctance
13
Direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic ļ¬eld can be determined by
Answer
C. Flemings Left Hand Rule
14
Calculate the energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 30 Ī¼F when connected to a 100 V dc supply
Answer
B. 15Ć10ā»Ā² J
15
Three equal capacitors are provided. In which of the following combinations maximum equivalent capacitance value will be obtained?
Answer
A. When all in parallel
16
The relative permeability of Vacuum is __________ H/m
Answer
D. 1
17
Three equal capacitances C are connected as follows. Two in series and this combination is connected in parallel with the third one. What is the equivalent capacitance?
Answer
C. 3C/2
18
Two magnetically coupled coils have a mutual inductance of 30 mH. If the current through one coil changes from 3A to 15 mA in 3 microseconds what is the average value of induced emf in the other coil
Answer
D. 120 V
19
SI unit of magnetic ļ¬ux is
Answer
B. Weber
20
Two coils of equal inductance L are placed adjacent to each other such that magnetic flux in coil 1 completely links with coil 2. The mutual inductance between the coil is
Answer
A. L
21
The maximum value of sinusiodal alternating current is 20A. Find the instantaneous value of current at 1/12th of a cycle.
Answer
C. 10A
22
Instantaneous voltage waveform is represented by v=Vā cosĪø. Average voltage is given by
Answer
B. 2Vā/Ļ
23
Voltage and current waveforms in an AC circuit is given by v = 100 sin (wt+15Ā°) and i = 10 sin (wt+60Ā°). Which of the following statement is true?
Answer
B. Current leads voltage by 45Ā°
24
The equation for instantaneous current in a circuit with resistance carrying a current of 10 Aįµ£āā from 230 V, 50 Hz AC supply is given by
Answer
D. 10ā2 sin(100Ļt)
25
Three identical resistors of 3Ī© are connected in star conļ¬guration. Find the equivalent resistances in delts connected conļ¬guration
Answer
A. 1Ī©
26
Three identical resistors of 1Ī© are connected in star conļ¬guration. Find the equivalent resistances in delta connected conļ¬guration
Answer
C. 3Ī©
27
Reactance offered by a capacitor of capacitance 1F in 230 V 50 Hz supply is
Answer
B. 1/(100Ļ)
28
In a 3Ļ star-connected system: i. line voltage = phase voltage; ii. line current = phase current; iii. line voltage = ā3 phase voltage; iv. line current = phase current/ā3.
Answer
B. ii and iii
29
In a 3Ļ delta connected system
Answer
A. Line currents are 30Ā° behind the respective phase currents
30
For a voltage waveform, form factor is given by
Answer
C. RMS voltage/Average voltage
31
Compared to ordinary electrodynamometer type wattmeter, in low power factor electrodynamometer type wattmeter which of the following statement are true? i. Pressure coil has low value of resistance ii. Pressure coil has high value of resistance iii. High value of control torque iv. Small value of control torque
Answer
C. i and iii
32
A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100 ohm. It is to be converted to 500 mA ammeter. The value of shunt resistance is
Answer
B. ohm
33
Which of the following statements are correct regarding power measurement in a 3 phase system with balanced load and unity power factor using 2 wattmeter method
Answer
A. Each wattmeter reads half of the total power
34
Diļ¬erent methods to measure high resistance includes : i. Direct deļ¬ection method. ii. Meggar iii. Kelvin's Double Bridge iv. Ammeter-voltmeter method
Answer
B. i and ii
35
Maxwell's inductance capacitance bridge is used for measurement of inductance of
Answer
B. Medium Q coils (1
36
Which of the following statements are true when two sinusoidal voltages of same frequency are applied to CRO?
Answer
D. All the above
37
A CT is installed in a system to measure current. The primary current in CT depends on
Answer
A. Load connected to the system
38
In PT, if we increase secondary burden,
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
39
In single phase power factor meter, which of the following statements are true
Answer
C. 2 only
40
Creeping in single phase induction type energy meter is due to
Answer
D. All the above
41
Which material is used as negative plates in Lead acid battery?
Answer
A. Sponge lead
42
Which part is loosing its weight during electrolysis?
Answer
B. Anode
43
Which is used as a top layer of a solar cell?
Answer
C. Silicon
44
The electrolyte used in Carbon Zinc dry cell is
Answer
B. Ammonium chloride
45
What is the purpose of seperator in Lead acid battery?
Answer
C. To avoid short circuit between negative and positive plates
46
What is the electro chemical equivalent (ECE) of copper?
Answer
A. 0.329 mg/coloumb
47
Which type of the ļ¬re extinguisher is used for ļ¬re on electrical equipment?
Answer
A. Halon type
48
What is starving in extinguishing of ļ¬re?
Answer
C. Removing fuel element from the ļ¬re
49
Cause of buckling eļ¬ect in Lead acid battery
Answer
A. Over charging or over discharging
50
Fire on electrical equipments comes under
Answer
C. Class D
51
Fusing factor of a fuse is deļ¬ned as
Answer
B. Ratio of minimum fusing current to the current rating of fusing element
52
The protection oļ¬ered by RCCB is
Answer
D. Protection from electric shock
53
What is the advantage of the concealed wiring?
Answer
D. Protection against moisture
54
Which type of accessories are used to tap supply for a portable appliance?
Answer
D. Outlet accessories
55
Maximum load allowed on light and fan sub circuit as BIS?
Answer
C. 800 W
56
The factor deciding the thickness of the insulation of a cable?
Answer
D. Voltage
57
What is the unit of luminous intensity?
Answer
C. Candela
58
Which is the cold cathode lamp?
Answer
B. Neon sign lamp
59
The unit of luminous eļ¬ciency is
Answer
D. Lumens/Watt
60
The minimum diameter of G I pipe used in pipe earthing is
Answer
C. 38 mm
61
The induced voltage in the armature of a separately exited dc generator is characterized as
Answer
C. Alternating and pulsating
62
In a DC electrical machine, the armature laminations are perforated for air ducts to
Answer
D. Enable cooling and air ventilation
63
Determine the armature power developed by a 200 V DC shunt motor taking a power input of 20 kW. Armature and ļ¬eld resistances are 0.05 Ī© and 100 Ī© respectively.
Answer
B. 19.12 kW
64
In a DC machine pole shoes are designed with larger cross section than pole core. It improves
Answer
C. Flux per pole entering the armature
65
The direction of rotation of a DC shunt motor can be reversed by
Answer
A. Reversing the current through either armature or ļ¬eld coils
66
If two identical traction motors are available in pair, then their eļ¬ciency can be determined by
Answer
B. Field test
67
In a wave wound DC machine, the mechanical balance of armature can be achieved by using
Answer
D. Dummy coils
68
A 230 V DC shunt generator has a maximum eļ¬ciency of 82%. When delivering an output power of 41 kW. Determine the magnitude of constant losses in the machine
Answer
A. 4.5 kW
69
A 240 V DC series motor has an armature resistance of 0.4Ī© and series ļ¬eld resistance of 0.1Ī© and takes 40 A at rated load. Calculate the value external starting resistance required to limit the starting current of 120% of rated load current. (Neglect the brush drop)
Answer
A. 4.5 Ī©
70
A DC series motor undergoes an open circuit fault in the ļ¬eld winding while driving a mechanical load. The motor will
Answer
A. Stop
71
The energy eļ¬ciency of a single phase distribution transformer is determined as
Answer
A. output in kWh/Input in kWh
72
When the insulating oil in a transformer cools down, it contracts and air drawn in to the transformer from atmosphere. This is termed as
Answer
A. Breathing
73
Among the following three phase transformer connections, which one is best suited to maintain service continuity even during a fault in one phase
Answer
A. Delta-Delta
74
Consider following facts about short pitch winding of an alternator i. It increases magnitude of generated emf ii. It improves induced emf waveform iii. It reduces eddy current and hysteresis losses iv. Increases the power rating of machine v. It helps to save winding copper Which among the statements are correct?
Answer
B. ii, iii,v
75
The output power delivered from an alternator can be increased by
Answer
B. Increasing the prime mover output
76
A synchronous motor running under constant excitation meet the increased load demand by an increase in armature current. This increase in armature current is due to
Answer
D. Rise in resultant voltage across the armature
77
Ratio of starting current to full load current of a three phase induction motor is 5 : 2. If the full load slip is 4%, determine the ratio of starting torque to full load torque
Answer
C. 1 : 4
78
In the case of an induction motor, the purpose of stator frame is to
Answer
B. Provide mechanical support to stator
79
Operating speed of an universal motor:
Answer
D. Independent of supply frequency
80
The mechanism for disconnecting the capacitor in a capacitor start induction motor failed to operate when the motor picks up the speed. Then
Answer
B. The capacitor will be damaged
81
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 010 1110
Answer
A. 2 E
82
Which of the following is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 9A
Answer
C. 10011010
83
Which of the following term represents logic high level in positive logic system?
Answer
A. true
84
How many outputs are in a half-adder circuit?
Answer
C. two
85
Name the ļ¬ip-ļ¬op which gives valid output when both its inputs are high
Answer
A. J-K ļ¬ip-ļ¬op
86
How many clock pulses are required for an 8-bit serial-in-parallel out shift register
Answer
D. 8
87
Which of the following concept is for a digital to analog converter
Answer
B. Binary weighted resistors
88
The terminal count of a typical modulus-10 binary counter is
Answer
C. 1001
89
___________ solders are used for glass-to-glass and glass-to-metal soldering.
Answer
B. Indium-tin
90
A serial-in-parallel out 4 bit from shift register initially contains all 1's. The data 0111 is waiting to enter. After four clock pulses the register contains
Answer
C. 0111
91
Ripple factor of half-wave rectiļ¬er is
Answer
A. 1.21
92
The basic purpose of ļ¬lter in a rectiļ¬er is to
Answer
D. Remove ripples from the rectiļ¬ed output
93
A voltage controlled oscillator is
Answer
B. Relaxation oscillator
94
If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the conducting channel
Answer
B. is decreased
95
What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
Answer
D. gate, anode 1 and anode 2
96
In IGBT, the layer connected to the collector terminal is called as the
Answer
B. injection layer
97
An SCR combines the features of
Answer
C. a rectiļ¬er and transistor
98
A voltage source inverter is used when source and load inductances are respectively
Answer
D. Small and large
99
An ideal regulated power supply is one which has voltage regulation of
Answer
B. 0%
100
What is the eļ¬ect in internal resistance of a discharged cell?
Answer
A. Increase
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