| Post Name | Electrician/Training Instructor- Electrician |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala State Film Development Corporation Limited/SC Development |
| Question Paper Code | 118/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 497/2025, 544/2025, 545/2025 |
| Date of Test | 9 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The net electrical charge in an isolated system remains constant. This is known as
Answer
A. Law of conservation of charge
2
Two resistances 4 ohm & 3 ohm are connected in series, the eļ¬ective resistance is
Answer
C. 7 ohm
3
Kirchoļ¬s voltage law deals with the conservation of
Answer
Question Cancelled
4
A 250 V bulb passes a current of 0.3 A. Calculate the power in the lamp
Answer
A. 75 W
5
In the certain circuit, having constant resistance the current is tripled, what will happen to power :
Answer
B. It will increase by 9 times
6
One Newton metre is same as
Answer
B. 1 joule
7
Two resistors are set to be connected in series when
Answer
Question Cancelled
8
Speciļ¬c resistance of a substance is measured in
Answer
C. Ī©Ā·m
9
Voltage dependent resistors are used
Answer
Question Cancelled
10
The current carrying capacity of a copper wire having twice the diameter of another copper wire is
Answer
C. Four times as great
11
Magnetic moment is a
Answer
C. Vector quantity
12
A direct current is sent through a helical spring. The spring tends to
Answer
B. to get shorter
13
The magnetic ļ¬eld required to reduce the residual magnetisation to zero is called
Answer
B. coercivity
14
A law establishing the fact that the algebraic sum of the rises and drops of the mmf around a closed loop of a magnetic circuit is equal to zero
Answer
C. Ampere's circuital law
15
The point in a magnet where the intensity of magnetic lines of force is maximum
Answer
A. Magnetic pole
16
The total number of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic ļ¬eld is called
Answer
A. Magnetic ļ¬ux
17
Eddy current produced in a core
Answer
B. Create loss of useful energy
18
Hysterisis loop least depends on
Answer
C. Ambient temperature
19
An electromagnet is stronger if it uses
Answer
D. a ferromagnetic material that is easier to magnetize
20
The inherent property of all matter is/are
Answer
B. Diamagnetism
21
Select the correct answer : The magnitude of AC voltage generated depends on : (i) Number of turns on coil (ii) Number of poles (iii) Speed of rotation (iv) Strength of magnetic ļ¬eld
Answer
D. All are correct
22
An AC current is given by , then its RMS value is given by
Answer
B. 0.707 Ć Im
23
Consider the voltage equations Vā = A sin(100Ļt + 15Ā°) and Vā = B sin(100Ļt ā 30Ā°). Which of the following statements is correct? (i) Vā leads Vā by 45Ā° (ii) Vā leads Vā by 45Ā° (iii) Frequency of the voltage waveforms is 100 Hz (iv) Frequency of the voltage waveforms is 50 Hz
Answer
A. Only (i & iv)
24
Crest factor of sinusoidal alternating voltage is
Answer
B. 1.414
25
The maximum current of a sinusoidal AC circuit is 10 A. What is the instantaneous current at 60Ā°?
Answer
D. 8.66 A
26
Form factor of a waveform is given by the equation
Answer
C. RMS value / Average value
27
Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding alternating current ļ¬owing through a pure inductive circuit? (i) Voltage lags behind current by an angle 90Ā° (ii) Current lags behind voltage by an angle 90Ā° (iii) Average power over one cycle is positive
Answer
D. Only (ii)
28
In an AC circuit containing pure capacitance only reactance is
Answer
B. Inversely proportional to frequency
29
Which of the following is the correct relation between line current and phase current in a star connected system?
Answer
A. Line current = Phase current
30
Which of the following statements are correct for a three-phase delta connected system? (i) Line voltage = ā3 Ć phase voltage (ii) Line current = Phase current (iii) Line currents are 30Ā° ahead of the respective phase currents (iv) Line currents are 30Ā° behind the respective phase currents
Answer
D. Only (iv)
31
Which of the following type of instruments may be categorized as transfer instruments?
Answer
Question Cancelled
32
Which of the following methods is NOT suitable for measuring high resistance?
Answer
C. Wheatstone bridge
33
The Time base circuit in a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) generates
Answer
B. Sawtooth waveform
34
Consider the following statements about an electrodynamometer type wattmeter (i) The ļ¬xed coils/ļ¬eld coils are connected in series with the load. (ii) The moving coil/pressure coil is connected across the voltage. (iii) The ļ¬xed and moving coils are iron cored. (iv) The deļ¬ecting torque produced not only considers voltage and current but also the power factor of the load. (v) The compensating coil in an LPF wattmeter is connected in series with the pressure coil circuit but made identical to the current coil. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
B. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
35
Consider the following statements (i) The secondary side is nearly short circuited for current transformer(CT) operation while it is nearly open circuited for potential transformer (PT) operation. (ii) The primary current in a potential transformer (PT) is dependent on the secondary burden while it is not in a current transformer (CT).
Answer
D. (i) and (ii) are correct
36
Match the following. (a) Hayās bridge (i) capacitance (b) Schering bridge (ii) inductance (c) Kelvin double bridge (iii) low resistance (d) Maxwell bridge (iv) inductance, high Q factor
Answer
C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii) - (d)-(ii)
37
A 220 V, 5 A DC energy meter is tested at its rated voltage and current under the following two methods: (i) Direct loading (ii) Phantom loading, where the current circuit is supplied by a 9 V battery. The resistance of the pressure coil is 9680 W and the resistance of the current coil is 0.5 W. Determine the diļ¬erence in power consumed between the two testing methods.
Answer
D. 1055 W
38
A stationary closed Lissajous pattern on an oscilloscope has 2 horizontal tangencies and 3 vertical tangencies for a horizontal input with frequency 12 kHz. The frequency of the vertical input is
Answer
A. 8 kHz
39
When two wattmeter method is used for power measurement in a balanced three phase system, one of the wattmeters reads 800 W while the other reads 400 W. The total power consumption and power factor of the load respectively is
Answer
C. 1200 W, 0.866
40
A moving coil instrument has a resistance of 15 ohm and gives full scale deļ¬ection for 1 mA. To extend its range to 50 mA, ________ may be used.
Answer
A. 0.3W shunt resistor
41
Human body experiences shock due to:
Answer
A. Flow of current
42
Currents which cannot cause direct physiological harm but can cause involuntary muscular reactions are called
Answer
C. Secondary Shock current
43
For a normal healthy person, a current of about 10 to 30 mA can cause
Answer
B. Muscular Contraction
44
Which of the following is commonly used as the fuse element in an HRC fuse?
Answer
D. Silver
45
Which protective device disconnect the current when leakage current ļ¬ows to earth?
Answer
C. RCCB
46
Double insulation method in portable electric drill eliminates the need for
Answer
B. Earthing Connection
47
A battery consists of three cells each rated 12V,100Ah are connected in series. What is the total capacity of the battery bank?
Answer
A. 100Ah
48
If 12 solar cells, each having a terminal voltage of 1 V are connected in series, what will be the total terminal voltage
Answer
C. 12V
49
A load consumes 100 W at 10 V. If each cell provides 2V and can supply 5A, determine the total number of cells required
Answer
A. 10
50
A UPS system requires 240V and 50A. Each cell provides 2V and can deliver 10A. Determine the total number of cells required.
Answer
D. 600
51
What type of switch is commonly used in staircase wiring to control one lamp from two positions?
Answer
B. SPDT
52
What is the fundamental purpose of adding charcoal and salt to an earthing pit?
Answer
D. To lower the soil's electrical resistance
53
What is the purpose of the arc chute found inside a miniature circuit breaker?
Answer
B. To divide, cool, and extinguish the high-energy electric arc formed during contact separation
54
Inside an HRC fuse body, what is the speciļ¬c role of the packed quartz sand powder?
Answer
A. To quench the electrical arc generated during a fault blowout
55
An industrial facility runs a balanced 3-phase heavy motor supply. Which main switch must be Installed for this purpose?
Answer
C. ICTP Switch
56
What type of fault is an MCB's internal bimetallic strip designed to protect against?
Answer
B. Delayed thermal overload protection
57
A point source of 150 candela (cd) light intensity emits light uniformly in all directions. Determine the total luminous ļ¬ux emitted by the source.
Answer
C. 1885 lm
58
An electrical circuit powering a 230 V water pump is protected by a standard 30 mA Residual Current Circuit Breaker (RCCB). If the pump develops an internal insulation fault that results in a leakage current of 0.015 A directly to earth. which of the following statements best describes the outcome?
Answer
B. The RCCB will not trip, and the water pump will continue to operate normally.
59
A 3-phase 415 V balanced industrial load consumes a total active power of 15 kW at a power factor of 0.82 lagging. Assuming a standard safety multiplier of 1.25 for motor starting currents and continuous operation, what is the ideal nominal current rating for the 3-pole MCB protecting this circuit?
Answer
C. 32 A
60
Why are Type D MCBs chosen for equipment like X-ray machines and heavy industrial motors?
Answer
B. They allow for high startup current surges without causing nuisance trips.
61
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the functions of yoke in a DC generator? (i) It provides mechanical support for the poles (ii) It acts as a protective cover (iii) It does not carry the magnetic ļ¬ux produced by the poles.
Answer
C. Only (i) & (ii)
62
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the working of a DC generator? (i) The emf induced in the armature conductors is alternating emf. (ii) To obtain unidirectional current in the external circuit, slip rings are used.
Answer
A. Only (i)
63
Determine the generated EMF of a DC shunt generator delivering an armature current of 20 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V and having an armature resistance of 0.5 ohm.
Answer
B. 260 V
64
A 6-pole wave wound DC shunt generator has an armature resistance of 1 ohm and a shunt ļ¬eld winding resistance of 145 ohm with 500 armature conductors and a useful ļ¬ux per pole of 0.05 Wb. Which of the following combinations of generated EMF and speed are possible for the above DC generator? (i) 750 V, 600 RPM (ii) 250 V, 600 RPM (iii) 1500 V, 1200 RPM (iv) 500 V, 1200 RPM
Answer
A. Only (i) & (iii)
65
Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT correct regarding lap and wave winding? (i) For a given number of poles and armature conductors, lap winding gives more EMF than wave winding. (ii) Wave winding is suitable for high voltage, low current machines. (iii) When large currents are required, it is necessary to use lap winding.
Answer
D. Only (i)
66
Which of the following is/are correct with respect to DC generator characteristics? (i) Open circuit characteristic shows the relation between no-load generated emf and the ļ¬eld current at a given ļ¬xed speed. (ii) Internal characteristic gives the relation between emf actually induced in the armature (after allowing for demagnetizing eļ¬ect of armature reaction) and armature current. (iii) External characteristic gives relation between terminal voltage and load current.
Answer
D. (i), (ii) & (iii)
67
The diļ¬erence between armature torque and shaft torque in a DC motor is due to : (i) Copper loss (ii) Iron loss (iii) Friction loss
Answer
B. Only (ii) & (iii)
68
Read the following statements: Assertion (I) and Reason (II). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below: Assertion (I) Back emf in a DC motor acts like a governor, i.e., it makes a motor self-regulating. : Reason (II) : If motor speed is high, then back emf is small and hence the armature current is large. If speed is less, then back emf is more and motor draws less current.
Answer
C. Assertion (I) is true but Reason (II) is False
69
Which of the following statement/s is /are NOT correct regarding Swinburneās test of a DC machine? (i) It is economical because the power required to test a machine is small. (ii) The eļ¬ect of change in iron loss from no load to full load is considered. (iii) The eļ¬iciency can be predetermined at any load.
Answer
A. Only (ii)
70
Which of the following statement/s is /are correct regarding armature or rheostatic speed control of a DC shunt motor? (i) This method is used when speeds below no-load speed is required. (ii) As the controller resistance is increased, speed is decreased. (iii) Smaller the resistance in armature circuit, greater is the fall in speed.
Answer
B. Only (i) & (ii)
71
A 200 KVA transformer has an iron loss of 1 kW and full load copper loss of 2 kW. Its load kVA corresponding to maximum eļ¬ciency is
Answer
C. 141.4
72
A 6 pole 50 Hz 3 phase induction motor runs at 950 r.p.m. and has rotor copper loss of 5 kW. The rotor input in kW is
Answer
A. 100
73
In an alternator the armature reaction is completely magnetizing when the load power factor is
Answer
D. Zero leading
74
Consider the statements about a stepper motor (1) The rotor has no windings (2) The Pull-out torque of a stepper motor refers to minimum torque required for starting (3) The resolution of a stepper motor increases with increase in step angle Which of the statement/s is/are correct?
Answer
A. Only (1)
75
Which of the following methods are suitable for speed control of squirrel cage induction motors. (1) Voltage control (2) Rotor resistance control (3) Frequency control (4) Pole changing
Answer
B. (1), (3) and (4)
76
A transformer has full load copper loss of 400 W. The copper loss at half full load will be
Answer
D. 100 W
77
Consider the following statements : (1) The all-day eļ¬ciency of a transformer depends on amount and duration of load. (2) The hysteresis loss in a transformer depends on square of frequency. (3) In a transformer OC test is conducted on 1v side and SC test on hv side Identify the correct statements?
Answer
B. (1) & (3)
78
The rotor circuit frequency of a 4 pole, 3-phase induction motor connected to a 50 Hz supply under locked rotor condition is
Answer
C. 50 Hz
79
A 50 KVA, 500 V alternator gave the following test results : Open circuit test : A ļ¬eld current of 12 A produced an emf of 300 V. Short circuit test : A ļ¬eld current of 12 A caused a current of 175 A to ļ¬ow in the short-circuited armature. The synchronous impedance of the alternator (in W) is
Answer
A. 1.71
80
In case of split phase motor, the phase shift between currents in the two windings is around
Answer
A. 30Ā°
81
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of decimal number 568?
Answer
B. 238
82
Which logic gate acts as an enable or inhibit device?
Answer
C. AND gate
83
Choose the Correct Statement
Answer
B. Boolean addition corresponds to OR operation
84
Which gate pair is directly related through De Morganās theorem?
Answer
D. NAND and NOR
85
Which adder circuit can handle carry input from a previous stage?
Answer
B. Full adder
86
Select the correct statement:
Answer
A. Edge-triggered ļ¬ip-ļ¬ops are bistable devices with synchronous input
87
The unique feature of a J-K ļ¬ip-ļ¬op compared to an S-R ļ¬ip-ļ¬op is its:
Answer
B. Toggle operation
88
To construct a modulus-18 binary counter, the required number of ļ¬ip-ļ¬ops is:
Answer
A. 5
89
A serial in/serial out shift register with 4 ļ¬ip-ļ¬ops provides a delay of 20 ms. The operating clock frequency is:
Answer
C. 200 kHz
90
A 4-bit Digital to Analog converter has a full-scale output voltage of 30 V. What is the output voltage when the input is 1010?
Answer
C. 20 V
91
The maximum eļ¬iciency of a full-wave rectiļ¬er without ļ¬lter is _________
Answer
B. 81.2 %
92
The ripple factor of a half-wave rectiļ¬er without ļ¬lter is _________
Answer
D. 1.21
93
The correct relationship between latching current (Iā) and holding current (Iā) in an SCR is:
Answer
C. Iā > Iā
94
A UJT relaxation oscillator generally produces:
Answer
D. Sawtooth wave
95
A regulated power supply provides:
Answer
A. Constant DC voltage
96
MOSFET is a:
Answer
B. Voltage-controlled device
97
IGBT stands for:
Answer
B. Insulated Gate Bipolar Transistor
98
Which battery water should be used in lead-acid inverter batteries?
Answer
C. Distilled water
99
A DIAC starts conducting when the applied voltage exceeds:
Answer
A. Breakover voltage
100
A TRIAC is equivalent to:
Answer
B. Two SCRs in antiparallel
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