| Post Name | FARM ASSISTANT GRADE II (AGRI) (KERALA AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITY) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 001/2025 |
| Category Code | 032/2024 |
| Date of Test | 4 January 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Number of micronutrients essential for plant growth as per essentiality criteria is
Answer
B. 8
2
A post emergence herbicide recommended for the selective killing of sedges and dicot
weeds in transplanted rice is
Answer
D. Ethoxy sulfuron
3
Percentage of boron in Borax (Na2B4O7.10H2O) is
Answer
A. 11%
4
Quantity of bispyribac sodium [Nominee gold 10 SC] needed per acre if recommendation
is 0.03 kg ai/ha is
Answer
D. 120 ml
5
An essential plant nutrient immobile in soil and mobile inside plants is
Answer
C. Phosphorus
6
As per the classification of Central Soil Salinity Research Institute, Karnal an irrigation
water with electrical conductivity ______ is suitable for irrigation.
Answer
A. <1.5 dS/m
7
Kerala soils are said to be magnesium deficient if the soil test value is
Answer
B. <120 ppm
8
Number of Agro Ecological management units
Answer
D. 23
9
Nano urea recommendation to crops as per IFFCO is
Answer
C. 2 – 4 ml
10
What will be the depth of irrigation if IW/CPE ratio is 0.75 with a CPE of 6 mm ?
Answer
B. 4.5 mm
11
Who first used the term nanotechnology and when ?
Answer
B. Nario Taniguchi, 1974
12
What is grapheme ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
13
multi Spectral Scanner (mSS) was on board on which satellite ?
Answer
D. landsat – 1
14
There are two Survey of India 1 : 50,000 toposheets with 15'×15' angular coverage,
one from Jammu and another from Kerala. Which of the following statement is true ?
Answer
C. The toposheet from Kerala will cover a large area than that of the Jammu
15
Calculate the percentage pore space in a soil with a bulk density of 1.3 mg/m3 and
particle density of 2.6 mg/m3.
Answer
C. 50
16
In a soil plant system, water and nutrient rise due to capillary action. If suddenly the
acceleration due to gravity is reduced to half, the capillary rise will be
Answer
A. double
17
SmP buffer is used in
Answer
A. lime requirement
18
The coordination number of AI+3 ion in Phyllosilicate mineral is
Answer
B. Six
19
Rank the following moisture regimes below from driest to wettest
Answer
C. xeric, udic, aquic
20
What are the six master horizons in the order which you will find them in the soil, from
top to bottom ?
Answer
D. O, A, E, B, C, R
21
Which among the following statements regarding IPm are correct ?
i. management is initiated when the increasing population of a pest crosses ETl.
ii. Insecticides are never used in IPm.
iii. management is initiated as soon as the damage by a pest is observed.
iv. IPm aims to keep the population of pests below EIl.
Answer
D. i and iv
22
Intra specific competition between parasitoids occurs in
i. Super parasitism
ii. multiple parasitism
iii. Gregarious parasitism
iv. Solitary parasitism
Answer
A. i only
23
Which among the following deleteriously affect pest management employing insecticides ?
i. Insecticide resistance
ii. Plant resistance
iii. Pest resurgence
iv. Pest replacement
Answer
C. i, iii and iv
24
Act/Acts based on the provisions of which the entry of exotic pests to India is
checked.
i. The Insecticides Act, 1968
ii. The destructive Insects and Pests Act, 1914
iii. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Answer
B. ii only
25
Identify the neonicotinoid insecticides from among the following.
i. Azadiractin
ii. Imidacloprid
iii. Flubendiamide
iv. Thiamethoxam
Answer
D. Both ii and iv
26
Read the following statements about insects and choose the option having all true
statements.
i. Nerve cord is ventral in position.
ii. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes is mediated by malpighian tubules.
iii. Heart is dorsal in position.
iv. Haemolymph transport oxygen.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
27
Which of the following are used as rodenticides ?
i. Zinc phosphide
ii. Zinc phosphate
iii. Warfarin
iv. dimilin.
Answer
C. Both i and iii
28
The bioagents recommended for the management of coconut rhinoceros beetle at
breeding sites are
i. Trichogramma chelonis
ii. Oryctes virus
Answer
C. Both ii and iii
29
Select the incorrect statement about management of rice pests from the following.
Answer
A. Late transplantation during first crop rice reduce gall midge infestation.
30
A technique used to reduce resistance build up in target pests against Bt transgenic
cotton
Answer
A. maintenance of refugia crop
31
Producers of mycotoxin patulin is
i. Penicillium expansum and Aspergillus clavatus
ii. Fusarium moniliformae and Aspergillus parasiticus
iii. Chaetomium and Bipolaris
iv. Stachbotrys chartarum
Answer
A. i only
32
dikaryotic spores of Puccinia graminis tritici is
i. Aeciospores
ii. uredospores
iii. Teliospores
iv. Basidiospores
Answer
C. i, ii and iii
33
diseases caused by fastidious phloem inhabiting bacteria is
Answer
B. Citrus greening and bunchy top of papaya
34
Disease due to deficiency of Boron is
Answer
Question Cancelled
35
Non enveloped (+)ss RNA viruses is
Answer
B. Potato virus X and tobacco mosaic virus
36
Toxin with inactivation of glutamine synthetase enzyme as the mode of action is
Answer
D. Tabtoxin
37
Sectoring of fungal colonies is termed as
Answer
B. Saltation
38
Antibiotics which inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall is
i. Tetracycline
ii. Penicillin
iii. Cephalosporin
iv. Chloramphenicol
Answer
B. ii and iii
39
Signaling molecule in Quorum sensing of Ralstonia solanacearum is
i. Homoserine lactones
ii. diffusible molecules
iii. Palmitic acid methyl ester
iv. Oligopeptides
Answer
C. i and iii
40
Causal agent of ginger yellows
Answer
B. Fusarium oxysporum f sp.zingiberi
41
Choose the correct statement or combination of correct statements.
Statement I : For explaining law of segregation, we have to consider at least two
characters at a time.
Statement II : law of independent assortment will not hold good if chromosomal
locations of considering characters are situated very close to each other.
Answer
C. II only
42
Which is true regarding mutation ?
I. It is the primary source of variation.
II. It leads to changes both in gene and genotypic frequency.
III. It helps in formation of new species.
IV. It is a sudden non-heritable change in dNA.
Answer
B. I, II and III
43
Consider a diploid and purely self pollinating crop. F1 Hybrid is generated in that crop
from two genetically divergent inbred parents. Assume that crossing over is prevented
in the F1 hybrid by using some technology and selfing practiced in F1 as usual except
for crossing over. What will be the genetic constitution of resultant generation ?
I. comprise homozygous types similar as inbred parents
II. comprise heterozygous types similar as parents
III. comprise heterozygous types similar as F1 generation
IV. comprise homozygous types similar as F1 generation
Answer
D. I and III
44
Genetic composition of multiline variety in wheat and gene pyramided variety in rice is
Answer
C. homozygous and homogenous in rice; homozygous and heterogenous in wheat
45
Choose the correct statement or combination of only correct statements regarding
synthetics.
I. It is suitable in cross-pollinated crops and lines with high SCA (Specific
Combining Ability) are used for production of synthetics.
II. Syn1 seeds obtained by random mating of Syn0 lines and Syn1 seeds given to
farmers for cultivation.
III. Syn2 seeds obtained by selfing of Syn1 lines.
IV. Syn2 seeds are generally not used for commercial cultivation.
Answer
D. None
46
Select the correct combination of statements. When many genes are controlling a
particular trait, F2 generation of a cross from inbred parents.
I. may not achieve 3 : 1 ratio because law of independent assortment is not
followed.
II. Express properties of binomial distribution.
III. Forms bell shaped curve with mean, median and mode are equal.
IV. Extreme phenotypes will be rare in the population.
Answer
C. III and IV
47
In heterosis breeding, for production of hybrids
I. Cross combinations with high SCA are selected.
II. Inbred lines with high GCA are selected.
III. Genetically divergent parents are selected.
IV. Genetically similar parents with superior performance are selected.
Answer
A. I and III
48
Which of the following statement and its reason are correct ?
Statement – I : Seeds obtained from F1, hybrid of sexually reproducing crops should
not be reused for cultivation.
reason for Statement – I : due to segregation, genetic constitution will be changed
in next generation.
Statement – II : Seeds obtained from hybrid variety of sexually reproducing crops
could be reused for cultivation.
reason for Statement – II : Since hybrid variety is stabilized and will be in
homozygous condition, seeds could be again used if we are preventing chances of
cross pollination with other varieties and mechanical mixing.
i. Statement – I and its reason is correct.
ii. Statement – I is correct but its reason is wrong.
iii. Statement – II and its reason is correct.
iv. Statement – II is correct but its reason is wrong.
v. Statement – II is wrong.
Answer
Question Cancelled
49
Assume that we are generating doubled Haploids
Answer
C. Homozygous and heterogenous in dH; Heterozygous and homogenous in F1
50
Which statement combination is correct ?
I. GI status given to agricultural products only in India.
II. Darjeeling tea is the first agricultural product that got GI status in India.
III. Patents are not granted to crop varieties/hybrids in India.
Answer
B. II and III
51
As per The Seeds Act, 1966, any person aggrieved by a decision of a certification
agency under Section 9 or 10, may prefer an appeal to appellate authority within
__________ from the date on which the decision is communicated to him and on
payment of such fees as may be prescribed, prefer an appeal to such authority as
may be specified by the State Government unless the appeal is entertained by the
appellate authority on some circumstances.
Answer
B. 30 days
52
Castor hybrids in India are being produced by utilising
Answer
D. Pistillateness of the seed parent
53
Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards are published by
Answer
C. Central Seed Certification Board
54
A seed lot shall be eligible for extension of the validity period of certified seed is
Answer
D. As long as it conforms to the prescribed seed standards
55
Provisions under Section 6 of The Seeds Act, 1966 pertains to
Answer
B. Powers to specify minimum limits of germination and purity
56
In hybrid seed production involving cytoplasmic male sterile lines, a plant of the ‘B’
line in the female row (male sterile ‘A’ line) is called as a
Answer
A. Pollen shedder
57
Registration of varieties to offer for sale of seeds is necessary if
Answer
D. New Seed Bill, 2004
58
designated seed borne disease in brinjal/egg plant is
Answer
A. Phomopsis blight
59
Inter-cropping is applicable to oil seed and pulse crops for the production of
Answer
B. Certified seed only
60
Every licence granted under the Seeds
Answer
C. ontrol) Order, 1983 shall unless previously
suspended or cancelled, remain valid for ________ from the date of its issue.
61
most important species of anthurium commercially cultivated in India
Answer
B. Anthurium andreanum
62
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the system of training ?
I. Bower system of training is practiced in cucurbitaceous vegetables.
II. In modified leader system, branches are well distributed.
III. Head system of training is practiced in high density planting system.
IV. Trees trained in central leader system are best suited to bear loads and resist
damage from strong winds.
Answer
D. None of the above
63
The scientific name of West Indian lemon grass is
Answer
C. Cymbopogon citratus
64
Select the incorrect statement given below relating to the action of growth regulators.
I. Abscisic acid inhibits RNA biosynthesis but has no effect on RNA activity.
II. Cytokinins promote lateral bud development.
III. Cytokinins always interact with auxins.
IV. Seedling growth is stimulated by gibberellins treatment.
Answer
A. I only
65
The anticancerous alkaloid vincristine is isolated from which of the following medicinal
plant ?
Answer
B. Catharanthus roseus
66
The relationship with colour and flavour of cocoa beans and degree of fermentation of
beans is indicated in the following statements. Find the correct statement/statements.
I. Fully fermented beans are black in colour.
II. Purple coloured beans are with low cocoa flavour, strong acidity, astringency and
bitterness.
III. Brown coloured beans have balance of acidity, astringency and bitterness.
Answer
C. II and III are correct
67
Which of the following shrub is grown for foliage purpose ?
Answer
C. Excoecaria bicolor
68
Which of the following index/indices is incorrect regarding the selection of coconut
seedling ?
Answer
D. None of these
69
Which of the following produces aggregate fruits ?
Answer
C. Custard apple
70
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to plant propagation ?
I. Cuttings taken from female trees root better than female trees.
II. High carbohydrate with low N level will aid easy rooting.
III. Semi hardwood cuttings are also known as greenwood cuttings.
IV. Treatment with synthetic auxins at appropriate concentration results in improved
rooting.
Answer
B. II and IV are correct
71
match the following and choose the right answer :
i. Chilli a. Allyl propyl disulphide
ii. Onion b. Trigonellin
iii. Garlic c. Capsaicin
iv. Fenugreek d. diallyl disulphide
Answer
C. i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
72
Isolation distance to be kept in production of certified seeds in amaranthus is
Answer
C. 200 m
73
Which of the following statements on brinjal varieties are true ?
i. Surya, Swetha and Haritha are bacterial wilt resistant varieties.
ii. Haritha is bacterial wilt resistant but Surya and Swetha are not resistant to
bacterial wilt.
iii. Surya is purple fruited and Swetha and Haritha are green fruited.
iv. Surya, Swetha and Haritha are high yielding but susceptible to bacterial wilt.
Answer
A. i
74
Choose the correct match on harvesting stage of tomato based on use.
i. Pink stage a. distant market
ii. mature green stage b. Canning and pickling
iii. Full ripe stage c. Home or table purpose
iv. Ripe stage d. local market
Answer
C. i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
75
Select the correct statement.
i. Snake gourd, pointed gourd and ivy gourd are monoecious in nature.
ii. Snake gourd is monoecious but pointed gourd and ivy gourd are dioecious.
iii. Ivy gourd is dioecious but snake gourd and pointed gourd are monoecious.
iv. Snake gourd, Ivy gourd and pointed gourd are dioecious.
Answer
B. ii
76
Blossom end rot of tomato is due to
Answer
D. Deficiency of calcium
77
Select the correct match of the following.
i. Winged bean a. Canavalia ensiformis
ii. Sword bean b. Canavalia gladiata
iii. Jack bean c. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
iv. Cluster bean d. Psophocarpus tetragonolobus
Answer
B. i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c
78
Chilli is a
Answer
A. day neutral plant
79
Choose the incorrect statement.
i. Tomato is a self pollinated crop but bitter gourd is cross pollinated crop.
ii. Cowpea is a self pollinated crop but bhindi is an often cross pollinated crop.
iii. Tomato and cowpea are not self pollinated crops.
iv. Snake gourd and bitter gourd are cross pollinated crops.
Answer
B. iii
80
Seed production of cabbage is done through
Answer
C. Both seed to seed and head to seed method
81
In differentiated pricing, companies often adjust the product price according to
Answer
D. All of the above
82
The concept of consumer’s surplus was first introduced by
Answer
C. Alfred marshall
83
utility analysis or marshallian approach of consumer’s behaviour is often called as
Answer
C. Cardinal approach
84
Social costs are also called as
Answer
B. Externalities
85
Geographical market segmentation is a sub-set of
Answer
A. demographic market segmentation
86
___________ is the capacity of a good to command other things in exchange.
Answer
B. Value
87
A product pricing strategy by which a firm charges the highest initial price that customers
will pay and then lowers it over time
Answer
B. Price skimming
88
Companies that have patents or extensive research and development costs such as
pharmaceutical companies are considered as
Answer
A. Natural monopolies
89
The demand for a good means
Answer
D. All of the above
90
What is the meaning of the term economists use “ceteris paribus” ?
Answer
B. All the other independent variables affecting the dependent variable are held
constant
91
Which of the following is not a group formation stage ?
Answer
A. Alarming
92
The autonomous body registered under Societies Act to implement extension schemes
at district level
Answer
D. ATMA
93
The ‘Panchayati Raj System’ was implemented based on
Answer
C. Balwant Rai mehta Committee
94
The Entrepreneurship development Institute of India is located at
Answer
B. Ahmedabad
95
The planning commission was replaced by __________ in the year 2015.
Answer
C. NITI Ayog
96
dARE stands for
Answer
D. department of Agricultural Research and Education
97
Which of the following are the mandatory activities of KVK ?
i. OFT
ii. Fld
iii. PTd
Answer
B. Only (i and ii)
98
IVlP is the acronym of
Answer
A. Institution Village linkage Program
99
_________ is a powerful PRA technique to understand relationship between different
institutes and people’s perception of their usefulness.
Answer
B. Venn diagram
100
The program implemented in 1979 by ICAR as part of its Golden Jubilee celebrations
Answer
C. Lab to Land Programme
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