| Post Name | Farm Assistant Grade II (Veterinary) - Kerala Veterinary and Animal Science University |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 095/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 239/2024 |
| Date of Test | 19 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The buļ¬alo breed which has its appearance and body conformation as an intermediate of Murrah and Surti breeds is called
Answer
A. Mehsana
2
What is the covered floor space area requirement for cows in India?
Answer
A. 3.5 mĀ²
3
Which Vitamin is essential for blood clotting and helps in prothrombin synthesis?
Answer
B. Vitamin K
4
The scientiļ¬c name of Napier grass is
Answer
A. Pennisetum purpureum
5
Which fodder grass is called Surinam grass?
Answer
B. Signal
6
Which among the following are legumes group?
Answer
B. Stylo, Alfa alfa, Berseem, Centro
7
Read the following statements and answer. i. It is a good practice to feed the animal with a portion of concentrate mixture at milking time. ii. Milking can be done twice or thrice daily, but at regular intervals
Answer
C. Both statements (i) and (ii) are true
8
Inļ¬ammation of the uterus of dairy animals is usually referred as
Answer
A. Metritis
9
Which process is used for manufacturing minerals having high bioavailability to feed animals?
Answer
A. Chelation
10
When green succulent forages are preserved by organic acids produced by the fermentation of soluble corbohydrates by natural microorganisms of the herbage, it is called
Answer
A. Silage
11
Milk fat is highest when the fermentation in the rumen favours the production of acetic acid. Which of the following feed stuļ¬s will tend to enhance the milk fat?
Answer
A. Feeding a high-ļ¬bre ration (17%)
12
Ovulation in cattle and buļ¬aloes occurs after the end of oestrus and is preluded by a sharp rise in _________ hormone
Answer
A. Luteinising hormone
13
Which of the following is not a method of outbreeding?
Answer
D. Line breeding
14
If the nucleus of a newly formed somatic cell in cattle has 60 chromosomes, then the chromosome number in its spermatozoa will be
Answer
B. 30
15
Grass tetany in dairy animals is due to
Answer
D. Magnesium deļ¬ciency
16
The process of fusion of male and female gametes occurring in the oviduct to form a diploid zygote is known as
Answer
C. Fertilisation
17
Crude protein content of paddy straw could be increased from 3.5% to 7.5% by the addition of
Answer
A. Urea
18
As per IS 2052 (2009), the minimum crude protein content (%/mass) in Type 1 compounded cattle feed is
Answer
C. 22
19
Which is the cattle breed developed by ICAR-Central Institute for Research on Cattle, Meerut and recognised as the ļ¬rst synthetic dairy cattle breed from India by ICAR-NBAGR in 2024?
Answer
A. Frieswal
20
Which of the following is not a recommended nutritional strategy for methane mitigation?
Answer
B. Feeding mature grass fodders
21
Examine the following statements with respect to CIP and ļ¬nd out the most appropriate option i. It ensures uniform treatment of all equipment's by eliminating human error ii. Causes less damage to equipment iii. It increases the total cost of cleaning iv. Reduces contamination
Answer
C. i, ii and iv are correct
22
Bacteria responsible for ropiness in milk is
Answer
A. Alcaligenes viscolactis
23
The oxidation reduction potential of milk is +0.2 to +0.3 volts. Therefore, spoilage of milk is mainly due to
Answer
B. Aerobic bacteria
24
The addition of starch to milk results in
Answer
B. Increase in Lactometer reading
25
Micro organisms responsible for gassiness in milk
Answer
D. All of the above
26
Milk fat is rich in
Answer
B. Saturated fatty acids
27
The presence of Alkaline phosphatase in pasteurized milk indicates
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
28
Examine the statements with respect to casein and select the most appropriate one i. Casein exists only in milk ii. It is a phosphoprotein iii. It is present in the form of calcium caseinate phosphate complex iv. It cannot be precipitated by acid, rennet and alcohol
Answer
D. statement (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
29
Examine the following statements and select the most appropriate answer i. Lecithin forms an important constituent of fat globule membrane ii. It contributes to the richness in ļ¬avor of milk and dairy products iii. It is not sensitive to oxidative changes iv. It is an excellent emulsifying agent
Answer
B. statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
30
Examine the facts related to bactofugation and choose the most appropriate answer i. Centrifugal force is used to separate bacteria and spores from milk ii. It is supplementary to pasteurization iii. It removes 95% of spores in milk iv. Used in cheese making process to remove clostridial spores
Answer
D. All are correct
31
The full form of HTST is : i. High-Temperature Short Test ii. High-Time Short Temperature iii. High-Temperature Short Time iv. Heat Treatment Short Temperature
Answer
D. only (iii)
32
Indirect UHT systems, heating is done by : i. Electric heating coil ii. Steam injection or infusion iii. Hot water jacket. iv. Microwave
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
A refrigeration system works primarily on which law of thermodynamics? i. Zeroth law ii. First law iii. Second law iv. Third law
Answer
C. only iii
34
Which of the following refers to the process of identifying potential employees and encouraging them to apply for speciļ¬c jobs in an organization? i. Recruitment ii. Selection iii. Induction iv. Placement
Answer
A. only i
35
Which of the following focuses mainly on persuation and changing consumer attitudes? i. Public relations ii. Advertising iii. Sales management iv. Customer support
Answer
B. only ii
36
ATMA (Agricultural Technology Management Agency) primarily functions at the i. National level ii. State level iii. District level iv. Panchayat level
Answer
C. only iii
37
Who appoints the Registrar of cooperative societies? i. Co-operative Election Authority ii. International Cooperative Alliance iii. State Government iv. Central Government
Answer
B. only iii
38
The Kerala State Cooperative Societies Act was passed in the year i. 1951 ii. 1961 iii. 1956 iv. 1969
Answer
C. only iv
39
Which of the following is not a secondary tillage implement? i. Harrows ii. Disc plough iii. Cultivator iv. Digging hoe
Answer
B. only ii
40
The process of entering all transactions from the journal to the ledger is called i. Journalizing ii. Posting iii. Balancing iv. Summarizing
Answer
A. only ii
41
Which of the following statement is not correct as far as fowls are concerned
Answer
D. Sense of taste is well developed
42
Which among the following statement is correct?
Answer
A. Uterus of fowl is 12 cm in length
43
Layer phase-2 feeding in commercial layers starts from (BIS 2007)
Answer
B. 46 weeks
44
Which among the following is an American breed of chicken?
Answer
B. Jersey Black Giant
45
The following storage condition is not appropriate in an egg storage room
Answer
A. Loss of water due to evaporation must be maximum
46
In thermostabilization, the eggs are immersed in water at
Answer
B. 60Ā° C for 5 minutes
47
A group of ducks is called
Answer
Question Cancelled
48
Which of the following statement is not correct as far as quails are concerned?
Answer
A. Peak egg production is reached by 26 weeks
49
Which among the following statement is correct?
Answer
B. FCR of commercial broilers is 1.65
50
Which among the following statement is wrong?
Answer
D. Chicken has no upper and lower horny mandible
51
Which among the following is a sex limited trait?
Answer
C. Egg production
52
Example of a lowly heritable trait in poultry
Answer
D. Egg production
53
The type of mating method in which the males are kept separately in a pen and females are brought in to that pen for mating
Answer
B. Stud mating
54
Crossing of a hybrid with one of its parents is called
Answer
B. Back cross
55
Which among the following statement is false regarding the storage of hatching eggs?
Answer
D. Incubation period is reduced by 1 hour for every day of storage
56
Soft chicks are observed due to
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
57
Which among the following statement is wrong with respect to battery brooding of chicks?
Answer
B. Handling of fecal matter is easy
58
A poultry farmer has 2000 White Leghorn hens on the ļ¬rst of April 2025. He culled 100 birds on 15th of the month and sold 500 birds on 30th of the month. The total egg production for the month was 30000. Calculate the total egg production on hen housed basis
Answer
A. 15
59
Which of the following parameter is not suitable for an incubator which hatch eggs?
Answer
D. Carbon dioxide 5%
60
Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Marek's disease?
Answer
A. Caused by Circovirus
61
Which of the following statements are correct? i. Probiotics are beneļ¬cial living microorganisms that colonise the intestines of animals ii. Probiotics increase the total surface area of intestinal villi, which enhances nutrient absorption iii. Probiotics are commonly added as a feed supplement in poultry feed production iv. The combination of probiotics and prebiotics is known as synbiotics
Answer
Question Cancelled
62
Match the following table containing feed ingredients to their primary use in poultry feed Ingredient Primary use 1. Maize a. Protein source of animal origin 2. Soybean meal b. Mineral source 3. Fish meal c. Protein source of plant origin 4. Shell grit d. Energy source
Answer
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
63
Which of the following statements are correct? i. Pearson's square method is commonly employed for formulation of feed. ii. Phase feeding is a widely adopted practice in commercial layer farming iii. Ad libitum feeding is practised in broiler breeder management.
Answer
A. only (i and ii)
64
Match the following table containing diseases of poultry with their causative organisms Disease Causative organism 1. Marek's disease a. Round worm 2. Coccidiosis b. Gallid Herpesvirus 3. Ascariasis c. Pasteurella multocida 4. Fowl Cholera d. Protozoa
Answer
B. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
65
Which statement is wrong about IBD in chicken? i. It is a bacterial disease that results in immune suppression ii. IBD can be controlled by vaccination iii. IBD vaccination is not necessary for broiler chickens, as the disease not typically observed in young chickens up to 6 weeks of age
Answer
B. only i and iii
66
Which of the following statements are correct regarding biosecurity? i. Biosecurity involves practices to prevent the introduction and spread of diseases in poultry farms and environments ii. Isolation and quarantine are important biosecurity measures in poultry farming iii. Culling of unproductive birds is a biosecurity measure practiced in layer frams
Answer
A. only i and ii
67
Find out correct order of the processing of chicken
Answer
D. Shackling-Antemortem Inspection - Stunning - Bleeding - Scalding - Defeathering - Singeing - Evisceration - Postmortem Inspection - Chilling -Packing
68
Which of the following statements are correct regarding egg quality? i. The height of thick albumen is a direct indicator of albumen quality ii. Ames' tripod stand is used to measure the height of albumen and yolk. iii. A screw gauge is used to measure the length and breadth of the egg albumen
Answer
A. only i and ii
69
Which of the following statements are correct regarding chicken processing? i. Giblets are the edible viscera of chicken, which include the heart, liver, gizzard and spleen ii. Cut-up parts of chicken include the breast, wings, back thighs and drumsticks iii. Further processing of chicken involves the value addition of chicken meat to make products like sausages, nuggets and cutlets
Answer
C. only ii and iii
70
Choose the group containing only essential amino acids i. Lysine, Methionine, Tryptophan, Arginine, Isoleucine, Histidine ii. Lysine, Methionine, Tryptophan, Arginine, Alanine, Glutamic Acid iii. Lysine, Methionine, Alanine, Arginine, Histidine, Aspartic acid
Answer
A. only i
71
Romanowski stains are compound stains containing Eosin and Methylene blue. Identify the correct statement regarding the component dyes in Romanowski stains
Answer
C. Methylene blue is the basic dye which stains the nucleus
72
Halter shaped gamonts in RBSs is diagnostic of infection with
Answer
A. Haemoproteus sp.
73
Pick the wrong statement regarding the ļ¬eas
Answer
B. Incomplete lifecycle
74
Match the following 1. Sarcophaga spp. a. Short three segmented antenna 2. Aedes spp. b. Blue-green metallic sheen in the body 3. Tabanus spp. c. Chess board appearances of the abdomen 4. Chrysomia spp. d. White bands in the legs
Answer
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
75
The counter stage used in Modiļ¬ed Ziehl-Neelsen staining
Answer
B. Methylene blue
76
The state of Theileria annulata seen in lymphnode smears
Answer
C. Kochs blue bodies
77
Thick shelled, gelatin capsule shaped ova with fully developed larva inside
Answer
D. Spirurid ova
78
A preservative used for faecal samples I. Formalin II. Polyvinyl alcohol III. Normal saline IV. Sodium Acetate-Acetic Acid-Formalin
Answer
D. I, II, IV
79
Microļ¬lariae of which ļ¬lariid worms are sheathed
Answer
A. Brugia spp.
80
The role of ether in formol ether technique
Answer
C. Dissolves fat
81
Which is not a preferred site for blood collection in cats a. jugular vein b. ear vein c. tail vein d. saphenous vein
Answer
C. only c
82
Which is correct with regard to vacutainer tubes? a. The red colour code vacutainer are meant for collection of serum b. The green colour code is of CBC c. The light blue colour code is for coagulation tests
Answer
B. none of these
83
In haematology, MCV stands for
Answer
C. Mean corpuscular volume
84
The CMT is a test to detect _________ type of mastitis. a. Clinical b. Subclinical c. Sub-acute d. Chronic
Answer
C. only b
85
A blood smear for diļ¬erential count is most commonly stained by a. H&E b. Wrights strain c. Field stain
Answer
A. both b and c
86
In microscopy, glycerol saline is not a preferred mountant for a. blood smear b. brain impression c. skin scraping
Answer
D. both a and c
87
Cryotome is an instrument for
Answer
B. Cutting frozen tissue section
88
In histopathology the pink colour of the stained tissue is due to
Answer
D. Eosin
89
Formalin is the most common tissue ļ¬xative which contains
Answer
C. 40% formaldehyde
90
In laboratory technology CSF examination is the examination of
Answer
B. Cerebrospinal ļ¬uid
91
Below mentioned diseases are zoonotic, except
Answer
D. Foot and mouth disease
92
Identify the wrong statement on the diļ¬erent types of microscope
Answer
B. When bacteria are viewed using a phase contrast microscope, they appear bright against a dark background
93
In IMViC test, "C" stands for
Answer
C. Citrate test
94
On performing biochemical tests, Escherichia coli produces i. Metallic green sheen on eosin methylene blue agar ii. Non-lactose fermenting colonies on Mac-Conkey agar iii. Catalase positive and oxidase negative iv. Fermentative reaction of OF test
Answer
D. i, iii and iv
95
Below mentioned are the diļ¬erent routes of egg inoculation techniques to isolate virus, except
Answer
C. Subcutaneous route
96
Identify the statement that correctly describes the following serological techniques i. Soluble antigen is used in agglutination test ii. Particulate antigen is used in precipitation test iii. ELISA can be used to detect both antigen and antibody iv. FAT stands for Fast antibody test
Answer
A. only iii
97
A molecular diagnostic test used in microbiology
Answer
B. Polymerase chain reaction
98
The headquarters of Food safety and standards authority of India (FSSAI) is located at
Answer
B. New Delhi
99
Commonly used fungal staining techniqe is
Answer
A. Lactophenol cotton blue staining
100
Identify the matched statement about sterilization i. Autoclave - dry heat ii. Hot air oven - moist heat iii. Disinfectants - Phenol coeļ¬cient iv. Membrane ļ¬lters - To ļ¬lter cell culture media
Answer
C. both iii and iv
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