| Post Name | FIELD ASSISTANT (OIL PALM INDIA LTD.) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 059/2025 |
| Category Code | 473/2024 |
| Date of Test | 31 May 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
In iron-toxic laterite soils of Kerala, which of the following silica sources is recommended
as soil amendment to improve rice yields?
Answer
D. 100 kg haβ1
2
What is the general fertilizer recommendation for high-yielding, medium-duration rice
varieties in wetland conditions as per KAU Package of Practices?
Answer
A. 90:45:45 kg N:P2O5:K2O haβ1
3
What does LEISA stand for in the context of sustainable farming practices?
Answer
C. Low External Input Sustainable Agriculture
4
Which of the following sweet potato variety is biofortified?
Answer
A. Bhu Sona
5
Which of the following is a principle of Conservation Agriculture?
(i) Permanent organic soil cover
(ii) Minimum soil disturbance
(iii) Species diversification
(iv) Intensive tillage
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
6
Growing perennial, annual, biennial crops of different heights, structures and rooting
patterns at the same time on the same land is called :
Answer
A. Multi-storey cropping
7
Which of the following correctly defines Water Use Efficiency (WUE) and its unit?
Answer
B. Water Use Efficiency is crop yield per unit of water used; unit is kg/ha-mm
8
__________ is considered as the upper limit of water availability to plants.
Answer
B. Field capacity
9
Which of the following plants is known to produce the allelochemical juglone, which
inhibits the growth of nearby plants?
Answer
C. Black Walnut
10
Which of the following is/are highly mobile nutrients in soil?
β
(i) NO3
β
(ii) H2PO4
(iii) K+
Answer
A. Only (i)
11
Which of the following statements about Foundation Seed is correct?
Answer
B. It is the first-generation seed derived from breeder seed.
12
Match the following crops with their respective seed certification standards in terms of
genetic purity:
Standards for Minimum
Crop and Class
Genetic Purity (%)
(i) Tomato Hybrid β Certified Seed
Answer
A. 95
(ii) Castor β Certified Seed
13
During field inspection of certified seed production in cowpea, the maximum permitted
off-types is :
Answer
C. 0.20%
14
Assertion (A) : In seed certification, isolation distance for maize is kept higher than
for rice.
Reason (R) : Maize is a cross-pollinated crop while rice is predominantly
self-pollinated.
Answer
A. Both
15
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Seed Class Tag Colour
(i) Breeder Seed β Golden Yellow
(ii) Foundation Seed β Azure blue
(iii) Truthfully labelled Seed β White
(iv) Certified Seed β Opal Green
Answer
B. Only (i)
16
Which of the following institutions has the power to advise the Central Government on
matters related to seed development under the Seed Act?
Answer
B. Central Seed Certification Board
17
A seed producer of sunflower is found violating the provisions of the Seeds Control
Order, 1983. What action/actions may be taken?
Answer
C. hoose the action/actions which is/are
applicable)
(i) Seizure of stock
(ii) Criminal prosecution under the Essential Commodities Act
(iii) Immediate revocation of breeder license
(iv) Issuance of license to regularize activity
18
Arrange the following legislations and acts in the order of their implementation :
(i) Seed Act
(ii) Seed Bill
(iii) Seeds Control Order
(iv) Intellectual Property Rights under PPV and FR Act
Answer
D. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
19
Assertion
Answer
C. Both
20
Which of the following statements correctly explains the relationship between Seed
Certification Agencies and Seed Testing Laboratories?
Answer
C. Seed Certification Agencies use results from Seed Testing Labs as a part of
final certification decision.
21
If there are two identical individuals A and B in the market, each with individual
demand for commodity X as given in the table below, the market demand QDx is :
Px (Rs.) Qd1 Qd2 QDx
8 0 0
4 4 4
0 8 8
Answer
B. 0, 8, 16
22
A Giffen good violates the law of demand due to :
Answer
C. Strong income effect outweighing substitution effect
23
__________ are the biggest markets from area point of view.
Answer
C. World markets
24
A strategy where a company sets a high price initially and lowers it over time is called :
Answer
B. Skimming pricing
25
If an indifference curve is horizontal
Answer
A. ssume X is measured along the horizontal axis
and Y along the vertical axis) this would mean that the consumer is saturated with :
26
A small farmer with low income may have :
Answer
B. Marketed surplus higher than marketable surplus
27
The individual demand curve for a commodity represents :
Answer
A. A maximum boundary of the individuals intentions
28
A company segments, its market based on how often customers use a product. This is an
example of :
Answer
C. Behavioral segmentation
29
If the MU of the last unit of X consumed is twice the MU of the last unit of Y consumed
the consumer is in equilibrium only if
Answer
A. The price of X is twice the price of Y
30
A health food company targets consumers who enjoy yoga, meditation and plant-based
diets. This is an example of :
Answer
B. Psychographic segmentation
31
DNA is composed of a backbone of sugar and phosphate. The ring-shaped
monosaccharide molecule in DNA structure is
Answer
A. Ribose
32
The correct statement about amino acid methionine is
Answer
C. Methionine is deficient in pulses.
33
The incorrect statement about coconut oil is :
Answer
A. Cholesterol is present in coconut oil.
34
The start codon for protein synthesis in mRNA is
Answer
C. AUG
35
Read the following statements about vitamins and answer accordingly :
Statement (1) : Deficiency of Thiamine leads to Beriberi.
Statement (2) : Removal of rice bran by polishing leads to loss of Thiamine.
Statement (3) : Thiamine is a Vitamin.
Answer
D. Only statement (3) is wrong
36
The oxygen that animals (plants as well) breathe in, goes to
Answer
B. Electron transport chain of mitochondria and water is formed.
37
Identify the correct answer about nitrogen assimilation in plants :
Answer
A. The first formed amino acid during the assimilation is Glutamine.
38
The pathway involved in the breakdown of fatty acids is :
Answer
B. Beta-oxidation
39
Identify the incorrect statement about photosynthesis :
Answer
D. The first sugar
40
A farmer sprayed abscisic acid on his crop for improving drought tolerance. What would
be the outcome?
Answer
C. Yield will reduce
41
Which of the following second messengers gets diffused in the plane of the Plasma
membrane?
Answer
A. Diacylglycerol
42
The antibiotics puromycin, neomycin and chloramphenicol inhibit translation by
Answer
C. Binding with the ribosome
43
Make the right combination of Nobel Laureate and the Nobel-Winning finding :
(i) Andrew Fire and Craig Mello
(ii) Harald Zur Hausen
(iii) Alfred Gilman and Martin Rodbell
(iv) Richard Roberts and Phillip Sharp
Answer
D. G proteinsβ role in signal transduction
44
Various enzymes are involved in transcription, translation and replication. Which
statement is incorrect?
(i) Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein.
(ii) Primase is a type of RNA polymerase.
(iii) Helicases act as molecular motors.
Answer
D. None of the above
45
Select the correct statement with regard to cancerous cells :
Answer
D. All of the above
46
Polymerases of different types are involved in DNA replication. These enzymes generally
contain different domains with different functions. Which statement is correct with
regard to these polymerases?
(i) Both the Ξ± subunit of Pol III enzyme and the Klenow fragment have polymerase
activity.
(ii) Both Pol III core and Klenow fragment have a 5β²β3β² exonuclease activity.
(iii) The Klenow fragment is part of Pol I, the main DNA replicating enzyme
in bacteria.
Answer
A. Only (i)
47
Mitochondrion is a major cell organelle. Which of the following is not correct about
mitochondria?
Answer
B. Mannose 6 phosphate signal is a protein tag meant to carry mitochondrial
proteins to the mitochondria.
48
Choose the wrong statement from the following :
Answer
B. T-loops are special structures seen in giant chromosomes.
49
Transposons are significant in the evolution of organisms. Select the incorrect statement
about transposons :
Answer
D. None of the above
50
Transcription is a complex phenomenon. Select the correct statement :
Answer
C. The fungal toxin Ξ±-amanitin has inhibitory effect on RNA Polymerase II.
51
DNA polymerase with proof reading activity used in PCR should definitely possess the
following activity :
Answer
B. 3-5β² exonuclease
52
Which of the following molecular markers can distinguish homozygous and
heterozygous:
(i) SSR
(ii) RFLP
(iii) RAPD
(iv) ISSR
Answer
B. (i) and (ii)
53
After cleaving the sequence, the nature of the ends created by the type II endonuclease
is __________.
Answer
C. Either the ends are single stranded or they are double stranded
54
In blue-white screening, what do blue colonies represent?
Answer
B. Cells with recombinant plasmids containing a new insert
55
The FISH technique is used for :
Answer
C. Locating and visualizing a specific DNA sequence
56
Velvet rose is a commercial variety produced by :
Answer
B. Somaclonal variation
57
The process of formation of callus from a leaf tissue is __________.
Answer
A. Dedifferentiation
58
Which technique is suitable for sterilizing tissue culture medium?
Answer
A. Moist heat sterilization
59
A patent is granted in India for a period of :
Answer
A. 20 years from the date of filing
60
Which of the following cannot be considered a bioethics principle?
Answer
A. Maleficence
61
What does GIS stand for?
Answer
C. Geographic Information System
62
Which gas is primarily responsible for acid rain?
Answer
D. Sulfur dioxide
63
The main objective of the Forest
Answer
A. Conserve forests and regulate their non-forest use
64
Minamata disease is an example of :
Answer
B. Bioaccumulation and biomagnification of toxic substances
65
The process in which plants absorb contaminants through their roots and store them in
their tissues is called :
Answer
D. Phytoextraction
A 15 059/2025
66
What does the term βCarbon Footprintβ refer to?
Answer
B. The total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by human
activities
67
Which of the following is a major component of the biofilm matrix?
Answer
C. Extra cellular polymeric substances
68
Which of the following activities can generate carbon credits?
Answer
A. Planting trees and using clean technologies
69
What type of treatment process is a trickling filter classified under?
Answer
B. Secondary treatment
70
Which of the following types of waste is considered hazardous?
Answer
A. Medical waste from hospitals
71
Which of the following best defines forestry?
Answer
B. Management and conservation of forest ecosystems for human benefit
72
Which branch of forestry focuses on raising trees outside traditional forests, such as on
farms or urban areas?
Answer
B. Social Forestry
73
What is the main objective of silviculture?
Answer
C. Raising and tending forest crops
74
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), which state has the highest forest
cover by area?
Answer
B. Madhya Pradesh
75
Who is known as the father of scientific forestry in India?
Answer
A. Dietrich Brandis
76
Which of the following features helps in identifying Acacia auriculiformis?
Answer
B. Phyllodes and yellow spike inflorescence
77
Which climatic factor has the most direct influence on forest evapotranspiration?
Answer
A. Wind speed
78
In soil formation, what role does the parent rock play?
Answer
B. Regulates pH and mineral content
79
Which kind of thinning is done at regular intervals regardless of tree quality?
Answer
B. Mechanical thinning
80
In forest succession, which stage is characterized by shade-tolerant climax species?
Answer
D. Climax stage
81
Consider the statements for clear felling system followed by artificial system,
Statement I : Casurina plantations
Statement II : Cryptomeria and Cupressuus plantations of West Bengal
Statement III : Nilambur Technique for teak
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II and III
82
Consider the statements for Clear strip Silvicultural system,
Statement I : Clear strip system results in production of even aged crop
Statement II : Clear strip system does not deteriorate the site and maintains the
aesthetic beauty of the area
Statement III : Protection of regeneration in strips is easy and cheap
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
D. Only Statement I and II
83
Consider the statements for Uniform Silvicultural system,
Statement I : It is shelter wood system
Statement II : Canopy is opened uniformly opened up to obtain uniform
regeneration
Statement III : Objective of retaining trees is to supply of seed for regeneration and
shelter against adverse climatic factors
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II and III
84
Consider the following statements for fast growth in plantation forestry,
Statement I : depends on productive capacity of the site
Statement II : depends on age at which the maximum volume produce occurs to suit
the quality and size of the material
Statement III : depends on purpose for planting, specifications for industrial use
Statement IV : depends on age at which a species defects and become prone to other
damages like wind stress or susceptibility to pests and diseases.
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II, III and IV
85
Consider the following statements for selection silvicultural system,
Statement I : results in the production of selection forest in which trees of all ages
are mixed together on each unit of area
Statement II : selection system conserves soil and moisture to the fullest extent
possible
Statement III : forest produced by selection system susceptible to insect and pest
attack and adverse climatic factors
Statement IV : forest produced by selection system, promotes the invasion of grass
and weeds
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
B. Only Statement I and II
86
Consider the following statements for Natural regeneration by coppice,
Statement I : Coppice shoots adventitious buds
Statement II : Adventitious buds are stimulated to produce new shoots by injury
Statement III : All tree species have the same coppicing power
Statement IV : Most of Indian conifers are good coppicers
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
B. Only Statement I and II
87
Consider the following statements for Natural regeneration in Teak Forests,
Statement I : Teak forests occur in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Kerala, Andhra
Pradesh and Karnataka
Statement II : Natural regeneration is easier in Teak than in Sal
Statement III : Natural regeneration in many areas consists of seedlings, seedling
coppice, stool coppice
Statement IV : Dry type of teak requires different treatment than moist type, fire is
beneficial in the moist teak forest but it is harmful in the dry type
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II, III and IV
88
Consider the following statements for Indian irregular shelter wood silviculture system
Statement I : Crop to be regenerated is opened up irregularly
Statement II : Resultant crop obtained is uneven aged crop
Statement III : Though retention of well grown poles and young immature trees
up to 40 cm diameter
Statement IV : Danger of loss of soil fertility
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II, III and IV
89
Consider the following statements for High forest silviculture system
Statement I : Regeneration is normally of seedling origin
Statement II : Rotation is generally long
Statement III : High forests are further classified as concentrated and diffused
system of regeneration
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II and III
90
Consider the following statements for Wedge silviculture system,
Statement I : is form of strip system
Statement II : Cutting section is located in middle
Statement III : Strips usually 2 to 5 m wide and made at intervals of 80 m
Statement IV : System was developed by Eberhard in Germany and adopted in
windy areas
Choose the correct statement/s :
Answer
A. Statement I, II, III and IV
91
The minimum length of protection given by a shelter-belt is about _________ times
its height.
Answer
B. 25
92
As per the Land Capability Classification, which class of land is not suitable for
agriculture but suitable for forestry and grassland?
(i) LCC III
(ii) LCC IV
(iii) LCC V
(iv) LCC VII
Answer
D. (iii) and (iv) only
93
The local names for shifting cultivation pronounced in India β Pick the odd one out:
Answer
B. Ray
94
Traditional silvipasture system in semi-arid tracts of Tamil Nadu is commonly
known as :
Answer
C. Korangadu
95
Pick the regulation services of agroforestry :
Answer
A. Soil Conservation
96
The cropping pattern followed in India :
(i) Kharif
(ii) Rabi
(iii) Zaid
(iv) Kharif and Rabi only
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
97
The silvi-agriculture system of agroforestry is :
(i) Improved fallows
(ii) Protein bank
(iii) Multiple tree gardens
(iv) Wind breaks
Answer
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
98
Hedge gardens is an example of _________ method of temporal arrangement.
Answer
D. Interpolated
99
The concept of Diagnosis and Design was attributable to :
Answer
A. ICRAF
100
___________ is an allelochemical present in the leaves of Leucaena leucocephala.
Answer
C. Mimosine
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