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Kerala PSC Finance Assistant – Meat Products of India Limited Previous Question Paper – 031/2026/OL

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Post NameFinance Assistant - Meat Products of India Limited
Question Paper Code031/2026/OL
Category Code199/2025
Date of Test20 February 2026
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Revenue is considered earned and recorded in the accounts under the Realization Concept at the point when
Answer
B. Goods are sold or services are provided
2
Which of the following bodies is responsible for issuing Accounting Standards?
Answer
D. Institute of Chartered Accountants
3
Sales = Rs. 65,000, Purchases = Rs. 41,000, Opening Stock = Rs. 7,000, Closing Stock = Rs. 9,000. Calculate gross profit
Answer
C. Rs. 26,000
4
In final accounts, net loss is transferred to which of the following accounts?
Answer
A. Capital Account
5
Anu and Binu share profits in the ratio 2:1. Manu is admitted for 1/4 share of profits. Before admission, the assets are revalued, resulting in a profit on revaluation of Rs. 9,000. How should this revaluation profit be distributed?
Answer
A. Anu = Rs. 6,000, Binu = Rs. 3,000
6
Goods sent on consignment are entered in the consignor's books at
Answer
D. Cost price
7
On the admission of a new partner, what adjustment is normally made to the existing partners' capitals?
Answer
C. Existing partners' capitals are adjusted for revaluation of assets and liabilities
8
In accounting, a Realisation Account is classified as which type of account?
Answer
B. Nominal Account
9
Financing Decision plays a prominent role in the financial management of any company. Which of the following best describes such a decision?
Answer
C. This decision primarily deals with the determination of the optimal mix of equity and debt used to finance the firm
10
Compute the Net working capital of PQR Ltd, from the information given below (in Rs.) Trade payables : 60,000 Cash in hand : 15,000 Inventory : 90,000 Trade receivables : 50,000
Answer
D. Rs. 95,000
11
Sun and Star Ltd is a reputed company which often sells its products on credit and also take measures to ensure timely collection of debts from the customers. This activity is an example of
Answer
B. Receivables management
12
What type of Cost is represented from the following statements : Statement I: This is the expense or loss incurred when inventory runs out and will result in the failure to meet the demand Statement II : It might result in losing the goodwill of the company and retards the sales revenue Statement III : It can also mean the opportunity cost of not having inventory to sell
Answer
C. Stockout cost
13
Which of the following statements are correct in the case of Stock Dividend I: It indicates the distribution of profits in the form of additional shares instead of cash II : It is done with an intention to conserve cash while increasing shareholder value III : It is issued to reward shareholders without reducing cash reserves IV : As more shares are issued, it can lead to the increase in the value of EPS
Answer
B. Only I, II and III are correct
14
Following are the specific features of a dividend policy often followed by certain companies. Mention the dividend policy I. This is a kind of dividend policy in which a company pays dividend only after meeting its financing needs for profitable investment projects II. Those companies who give priority to growth and investment often resort to this dividend policy III. In a particular year, if there are no surplus after funding profitable investment projects, no dividend is paid for that period IV. This kind of dividend policy helps minimise the need for external financing
Answer
A. Residual Dividend Policy
15
B Co. Ltd has excess cash with them that will not be needed for the next two months. What is the best decision, the company can take as part of managing cash
Answer
D. The company should look forward to invest such amount in short-term marketable securities
16
From the following, identify the factors that directly determine the dividend policy of a company I. Legal or contractual constraints II. Growth prospects of the company III. Number of employees in the company IV. Company's earning stability
Answer
B. Only I, II and IV
17
How the base stock which is sometimes called normal stock is treated under base stock method?
Answer
B. Fixed asset
18
An expense that are spent by an employer for the welfare of his employees are called
Answer
C. Fringe benefits
19
Alternative terms for absorption costing (i) full costing (ii) orthodox costing (iii) marginal costing (iv) product costing
Answer
C. (i) and (ii)
20
Which is considered as a unit of quantity of output in relation to which cost is ascertained?
Answer
D. Cost unit
21
Which is an example of distribution cost?
Answer
A. Depreciation
22
Which is a systematic technique to determine the worth of a job?
Answer
D. Job evaluation
23
When the selling price increases, break-even point
Answer
A. decreases
24
The cost which does not involve actual cash outlay
Answer
B. notional cost
25
The book 'The Practice of Management' is written by
Answer
B. Peter F Drucker
26
Mr. A, the manager of an organization maintains a network of outside contacts to obtain favours and information. Which role of manager is performed by Mr. A?
Answer
B. Liaison
27
A leadership style where the leader completely delegates his authority so that the subordinates themselves take decisions and the leader serves only as a contact to bring the information and resources needed by the subordinates is known as
Answer
A. Laissez-faire leadership
28
The style of managerial grid which give maximum concern for people and minimum concern for production is
Answer
C. Country Club
29
'Cease dependence on mass inspection' is the one of the focus aspects of
Answer
C. Deming's 14 points of management
30
Which of the following is a hygiene factor as per Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory?
Answer
D. All the above
31
The technique of 'carrot and stick' is used for
Answer
D. Motivating
32
Who developed Administrative theory of management?
Answer
A. Henry Fayol
33
The purpose of calculating opportunity cost is
Answer
B. For quantifying potential benefits lost when choosing another alternative
34
Which among the following is not a function of managerial economics?
Answer
D. Studying macro level changes of a country
35
Which of the following risk assessment techniques is an example of 'Monte Carlo'?
Answer
A. Simulation Methods
36
Which among the following is an adaptive strategy to cope with uncertainty?
Answer
D. Collaborative plans with risk sharing
37
Name the product category among the following which remains constant despite any economic downturn
Answer
B. Healthcare products
38
Which among the following theory explains the technical relationship between the amounts of two or more inputs and the amount of output that can be produced by those inputs?
Answer
C. Cobb-Douglas Production Function
39
Offering 'Bulk Discount' is an example of which pricing method given below
Answer
D. Nonlinear pricing
40
Extensive depletion of national income and expenditure happens in one of the phases of following economic cycle. Choose that phase
Answer
B. Trough
41
Company Law mainly deals with
Answer
B. Formation, management and winding up of companies
42
The collective body responsible for the overall management of a company is known as
Answer
B. Board of Directors
43
Which document contains details such as shareholding pattern and details of directors?
Answer
C. Annual Return
44
Which of the following is a mandatory committee for certain classes of companies under Company Law?
Answer
B. Audit Committee
45
Which of the following is *NOT* a function of the Board of Directors?
Answer
C. Daily routine clerical work
46
The maximum permissible gap between two consecutive Board Meeting is
Answer
B. 120 days
47
Voluntary winding up of a company generally takes place when
Answer
C. Members resolve to wind up the company
48
In winding up proceedings, the person appointed to realize assets and distribute them among creditors is called
Answer
C. Liquidator
49
Which of the following best explains why the secondary market is essential for the growth of the primary market?
Answer
C. It provides liquidity to investors
50
The scenario best reflects investor confidence in the capital market?
Answer
B. Rising prices with consistent trading volume
51
Assertion (A) : Dematerialization has improved efficiency in the Indian stock market. Reason (R) : It eliminates problems related to physical share certificates. Choose the correct option :
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
52
Assertion (A) : Book building is considered superior to the fixed price method. Reason (R) : Book building helps in discovering the market-driven issue price. Choose the correct option :
Answer
C. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
53
Statement I : Private placement involves sale of securities to the general public. Statement II : Private placement is offered to selected investors. Choose the correct option :
Answer
C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
54
Statement I : A sudden surge in trading volume with no price change indicates equilibrium. Statement II : Demand and supply forces offset each other. Choose the correct option :
Answer
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
55
Consider the following statements about methods of flotation of capital : 1. They are used by companies to raise long-term funds 2. They determine the extent of public participation 3. They are applicable only to listed companies
Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
56
Consider the following statements about efficient financial markets : 1. Prices reflect available information 2. Transaction costs are low 3. Arbitrage opportunities exist permanently
Answer
D. 1 and 2 only
57
Mr. Arjun earned a salary income during the financial year 2023-24. For the purpose of filing his income tax return, which of the following correctly identifies the Previous Year (PY) and the Assessment Year (AY)?
Answer
C. PY : 2023-24, AY : 2024-25
58
"Income" under the Income Tax Act is divided into five specific heads. If an individual receives interest from a savings bank account and dividends from shares, under which head should this income be classified?
Answer
D. Income from Other Sources
59
Which of the following scenarios best distinguishes "Tax Planning" from "Tax Evasion"?
Answer
B. Investing in a Public Provident Fund (PPF) to claim a deduction under Section 80C
60
Mr. X, a salaried employee, lives in a rented apartment. He receives House Rent Allowance (HRA) as part of his salary. To determine the taxable portion of HRA, which of the following factors is NOT considered?
Answer
C. Standard Deduction available under the head salary
61
Gross Total Income (GTI) differs from Total Income (TI). Which of the following equations correctly represents the relationship between the two?
Answer
B. Total Income = GTI Deductions under Chapter VI-A
62
As assessee sells a residential house property held for 30 months. To classify the gain as Short Term or Long Term Capital Gain, what is the critical factor to consider?
Answer
C. The period of holding of the asset
63
Mr. Riya creates a 'Trust' for the benefit of her minor child and transfers income generating assets to it. Under the concept of "Person" and Assessee", who is liable to pay tax on this income if clubbing provisions apply?
Answer
C. Ms. Riya (The Transferor)
64
Why is the distinction between "Capital Receipt" and "Revenue Receipt" fundamental to the Income Tax Act?
Answer
A. Capital receipts are generally exempt unless specified, while revenue receipts are generally taxable unless exempted
65
The first step in the consumer buying process in
Answer
C. Need recognition
66
Consumer behaviour is the study of
Answer
B. Buyer behavior in the market
67
Maslow's hierarchy of needs relates to
Answer
B. Psychological factors
68
CRM helps firms to
Answer
B. Build customer retention
69
Demographic segmentation includes
Answer
C. Age and income
70
Width of product mix refers to
Answer
A. Number of product lines
71
Coupons and discounts are examples of
Answer
B. Sales promotion
72
Press releases are a tool of
Answer
C. Public relations
73
Preparation before audit includes
Answer
C. Understanding the business
74
Working papers are
Answer
B. Auditor's personal property
75
According to Spicer and Pegler, auditing is primarily concerned with
Answer
B. Examination of accounts
76
Internal control system is effective when
Answer
B. Duties are properly segregated
77
Audit programme should be
Answer
C. Flexible
78
Which voucher is prepared when original voucher is lost?
Answer
B. Collateral voucher
79
Permanent audit file is useful because it
Answer
A. Reduces audit time
80
Investigation is usually undertaken on behalf of
Answer
B. Management or outsiders
81
Examine the table below : Device Technology used Primary Use Device X Magnetic Cheque Processing Device Y Optical Printed text recognition Device Z Optical Multiple choice questions Identify X, Y and Z respectively
Answer
B. MICR, OCR, OMR
82
Which device will not produce a hard copy?
Answer
C. Monitor
83
Study the table : Computer Type Characteristic A Extremely high speed, Parallel Processing B Portable, moderate processing C Designed for a specific task Which option correctly matches A, B and C?
Answer
B. Supercomputer, Laptop, Special-purpose computer
84
If a number system has digits from 0 to 7, which of the following statments is TRUE?
Answer
D. Each digit can be represented using exactly 3 binary bits
85
Which of the following software combinations contains only system software?
Answer
A. Linux OS, Device Drivers, Compiler
86
Consider the following statement : Which statements are correct? 1. Printing a document requires saving it first 2. Previewing a document helps detect layout issues 3. Headers appear at the top of each page
Answer
B. 2 and 3 only
87
The ruler in MS Word is mainly used to
Answer
B. Set margins and tab stops
88
A formula in Excel always begins with
Answer
C. =
89
Assertion (A) : Headers and footers appear only on the first page of a worksheet. Reason (R) : Headers and footers are used to display page numbers and titles. Choose the correct option :
Answer
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
90
Which feature applies effects that appear when moving from one slide to another?
Answer
C. Slide Transition
91
A software team wants to modify internal implementation of a class without affecting other modules that use it. Which OOP principle best supports this requirement?
Answer
C. encapsulation
92
Consider the following C++ scenario : A class function needs to access both class-level data and object-specific data. Which of the following ensures correct scope resolution?
Answer
B. using the scope resolution operator
93
In VB.NET, a variable declared inside a procedure retains its value between calls only if it is declared as :
Answer
C. static
94
An event-driven VB.NET application must respond immediately when a user clicks a button. Which mechanism enables this behavior?
Answer
A. event handler method
95
A database table has a column that uniquely identifies each record and prevents duplicate values. This column is best defined as :
Answer
C. primary key
96
Which SQL command category is primarily responsible for enforcing access permissions on database onjects?
Answer
B. DCL
97
A manager wants a report showing total sales department-wise from a large table. Which SQL clause is essential for this requirement?
Answer
C. GROUP BY
98
Which component of a URL primarily identifies the protocol used to access a web resource?
Answer
C. scheme
99
In an HTML document which section is most appropriate for including metadata and page title?
Answer
B.
100
A Javascript function is executed when a user submits a form. Which event is responsible for triggering this action?
Answer
C. onSubmit

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