| Post Name | FINGER PRINT SEARCHER (Kerala Police Service (Finger Print Bureau)) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 171/2025 |
| Category Code | 233/2024 |
| Date of Test | 18 December 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces of 6 N and 8 N. The
acceleration of the body is :
Answer
B. 2 m/s2
2
A constant force of 20 N acts on a body of mass 4 kg moving in a straight line. The body
moves 5 m. The work done by the force is :
Answer
D. 100 J
3
A bullet of mass 0.01 kg is fired into a block of 2 kg resting on a smooth surface. If the
bullet embeds in the block and the velocity of the bullet before impact is 300 m/s, find
their common velocity :
Answer
A. 1.5 m/s
4
A solid sphere and a solid cylinder, each of same mass and radius, roll down an incline.
Which one reaches the bottom first?
Answer
A. Sphere
5
The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to half its initial value in 10 s. The
logarithmic decrement is :
Answer
C. 0.693
6
Two waves y1 = 0.02 sin(100π t ) and y2 = 0.02 sin(100π t + π / 2) are superimposed. The
resultant amplitude is :
Answer
B. 0.028 m
7
A car horn emits sound of frequency 500 Hz. If the car moves towards a stationary
observer with a speed of 30 m/s (speed of sound = 330 m/s), observed frequency is
approximately :
Answer
A. 550 Hz
8
According to Einstein’s postulates, the speed of light in vacuum :
Answer
C. Is constant in all inertial frames
9
A moving clock appears to tick once every 2.5 s for a stationary observer. If the clock’s
proper period is 2 s, find the speed of the clock :
Answer
C. 0.6 c
10
A soap bubble of radius 2 cm has surface tension 0.03 N/m. The excess pressure inside
the bubble is :
Answer
D. 6 N/m2
11
A copper wire of length 2 m and radius 1 mm is hung vertically and loaded with a weight
of 1 kg :
If the Young’s modulus of copper is 2 × 1010 N/m2, then the elongation produced in the
wire is approximately :
(Take g = 10 m/s2 and π = 3 )
Answer
A. 3 × 10 −5 m
12
A body undergoes forced oscillations. The amplitude of oscillation will be maximum when
the driving frequency equals :
Answer
B. Natural frequency
13
Which of the following Boolean expressions not correctly represents the Exclusive–OR
(XOR) operation for two inputs A and
Answer
D. A+B
14
A capacitor is often referred to as a blocking capacitor because it :
Answer
B. blocks DC current
15
The primary characteristics of the common collector configuration of transistor is :
Answer
C. voltage gain nearly unity
16
Which of the following is an advantage of a bridge rectifier compared to a center-tapped
rectifier?
Answer
C. Lower PIV requirement for diodes
17
Which specific, new physical phenomenon was uniquely predicted as a consequence of
Maxwell’s addition of the displacement current term to Ampere’s Circuital Law?
Answer
A. Propagation of self-sustaining electromagnetic waves in vaccum
18
Which statement accurately describes the key advantage of a piezoelectric oscillator over
standard LC or RC oscillators?
Answer
A. They provide exceptionally high frequency stability and a superior quality
factor
19
The core material with a very narrow hysteresis loop is desirable for which of the
following applications?
Answer
C. Electromagnets and transformers
20
For an RC differentiator circuit, the correct condition for proper differentiation is:
Answer
D. RC << T
21
The energy stored in an inductor of 2 H carrying 1 A current is :
Answer
A. 1J
22
A current source of 0.1 A has a parallel internal resistance of 10 Ω. It is connected to a
10 Ω load. Find the current through the load 0.02
Answer
B. 0.05 A
23
The capacitor in an RC discharging circuit loses 80% of its initial charge in a certain
time t. Find time in terms of RC :
Answer
A. 1.609 RC
24
The simplified form of AB + A ′C + BC is :
Answer
A. AB + A ′C
25
In the context of polarization by reflection, what defined the Brewster angle?
Answer
A. The angle of incidence where the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other
26
Which of the following factors primarily determines the resolving power of a diffraction
grating?
Answer
D. The total number of ruled lines on the grating
27
Why is a metastable state essential for laser action?
Answer
A. It enables the achievement of population inversion
28
Wien’s displacement law states that the wavelength corresponding to maximum spectral
emission (λmax ) from the black body is :
Answer
C. Inversely proportional to its absolute temperature (T)
29
The Clausius statement of the Second Law of Thermodynamics essentially asserts that :
Answer
B. Heat cannot spontaneously flow from a cold body to a hot body without an
external work
30
In statistical mechanics, what is the dimension of the phase space for a system
containing N independent particles (with no internal structure)?
Answer
C. 6N
31
In the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, what physical quantity is most likely for a
particle to have near the peak of the curve?
Answer
D. The most probable speed
32
A Carnot engine operates between two reservoirs at temperature of 500 K and 300 K.
What is the maximum possible efficiency of this engine?
Answer
C. 40%
33
A canonical ensemble in statistical mechanics is defined as a collection of systems that
all share the same :
Answer
B. Temperature (T), Volume (V) and Number of Particles (N)
34
According to the equipartition theorem, what is the average energy per translational
degree of freedom for a molecule at temperature T?
1 3
Answer
A. kT
35
A plano convex lens is made up of a glass of refractive index 1.50. If the radius of the
curved surface is 40 cm, the focal length of the lens will be :
Answer
B. 80 cm
36
The total angular width of the central bright maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction
pattern of a slit of width 12 × 10 −5 cm, when the slit is illuminated by monochromatic
light of wavelength 600 nm is:
Answer
D. 60°
37
Which of the following is not true?
(i) Bohr’s theory helped in calculating the energy of the electron in a particular orbit
of hydrogen atom.
(ii) Bohr atomic model couldn’t explain the stability of an atom.
(iii) Bohr’s theory provided explanation about the shapes of molecules.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
38
Which series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum appears in the visible region?
(i) Lyman
(ii) Paschen
(iii) Pfund
Answer
D. None of the above
39
Which processes is responsible for the production of hydrogen bomb?
Answer
D. Nuclear Fusion
171/2025 8 A
40
Calculate the number of atoms contained within a face-cantered cubic unit cell :
Answer
B. 4
41
Name the defect in crystals which is caused by the shifting of an ion from its normal
position to an interstitial position :
(i) Metal excess defect
(ii) Schottky defect
(iii) Frenkel defect
Answer
C. Only (iii)
42
Elementary particles of non-integral spin are called :
Answer
A. Fermions
43
Which of the following is not true?
(i) Superconductivity is the property of certain materials to conduct direct current
electricity without energy loss when they are cooled above a critical temperature.
(ii) The main advantage of the superconductive magnet, in contrast to the
electromagnet, is that it does not dissipate energy to maintain the magnetic field.
(iii) Superconductors prevent external magnetic field from penetrating the interior of
the superconductor.
Answer
B. Only (i)
44
The bombardment of boron with alpha particles yields a radioactive isotope of :
13
Answer
A. 7N + 0 n1
45
Calculate the Miller indices of the crystal plane whose intercepts are 3a, 6b and 3c :
Answer
C. (2 1 2)
46
The wave function ψ 2 in Schrodinger wave equation represents :
(i) Amplitude of the wave function.
(ii) Eigen functions and eigen values.
(iii) The probability of finding an electron of a given energy.
Answer
A. Only (iii)
47
Which of the following statement is true?
(i) Packing fraction can have only positive value
(ii) A positive value of packing fraction implies the instability of nuclei.
(iii) A positive value of packing fraction implies the stability of nuclei.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
48
An example of Orthorhombic crystal system :
Answer
C. K 2SO4
49
Which of the following statements are true considering Uncertainty principle?
(i) If the object is microscopic its position or velocity will not be altered with by the
impact of light photons.
(ii) If the object is extremely minute it will suffer a change in its position or velocity by
the impact of light photons.
(iii) If the object is of reasonable size, its position or velocity will not be altered with by
the impact of light photons.
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
50
Which one is a postulate of wave mechanics?
(i) For a system moving in one dimension, i.e. x-coordinate, the physical state of a
system at time t is described by the wave function ψ (x , t ) .
(ii) The wave function ψ (x , t ) and its first and second derivatives are continuous, finite
and single valued for all values of x.
(iii) A physical observable quantity can be represented by a Hermitian operator.
Answer
D. All the above
51
The oxidizer commonly used in solid rocket propellants is :
Answer
D. Potassium nitrate
52
In a 1D particle in a box, boundary conditions require the wave function to be :
Answer
B. Zero at the walls
53
A 2p orbital corresponds to :
Answer
C. n = 2, l = 1
54
The Born–Oppenheimer approximation allows separation of :
Answer
C. Electronic and nuclear motions
55
The rotational constant B is proportional to :
Answer
D. 1/(moment of inertia)
56
A molecule is centrosymmetric if it has :
Answer
A. center of symmetry
57
Schottky defect involves :
Answer
C. Equal number of cation and anion vacancies
58
Which one of the following is a colligative property?
Answer
B. Osmotic pressure
59
Solubility of AgCl decreases in :
Answer
D. Both
60
In paper chromatography, the stationary phase is :
Answer
B. Water absorbed on paper
61
Zeolites are chemically :
Answer
A. Hydrated aluminosilicates
62
The most effective method for removing particulate matter from industrial emissions is :
Answer
A. Electrostatic precipitator
63
Which of the following statements about De Broglie’s hypothesis is incorrect?
Answer
B. The De Broglie wavelength increases with increasing mass of the particle
64
The correct set of four quantum numbers (n, l, m and s) of the 31st electron of Gallium
Answer
C. n = 4, l = 1, m = –1, s = + 1 2
65
The hybridization of Nickel in [Ni
Answer
A. sp3
66
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity :
Answer
D. Electrons in degenerate orbitals may have opposite spins before half-filling
67
Among the following compounds, intramolecular hydrogen bonding is observed in:
(i) Water
(ii) Ethanol
(iii) o-Nitrophenol
(iv) Salicylaldehyde
Answer
B. (iii) and (iv) only
68
The bond order of the O2, N2 and F2 molecules according to Molecular Orbital Theory
(MOT) are respectively :
Answer
A. 2, 3, 1
69
Using the Lande’s equation, the magnetic moment ( μ ) of Fe2+ (3d6) in Bohr magnetons
Answer
D. 5.92
70
According to VSEPR theory, the shape and hybridization of the central sulphur atom in
SF4 molecule are :
Answer
C. See-saw and sp3d
71
Match the following ores with the metals obtained from them:
Column I
Answer
A. Cinnabar (i) Lead
72
The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 10 days. The fraction of the isotope remaining
after 50 days will be :
Answer
D. 1/32
73
In the uranium radioactive disintegration series, the stable end product formed is:
Answer
A. Lead–206
74
The nuclear reaction :
14 4 17 1
7 N + 2 He→ 8 O +1 H is an example of :
Answer
B. Artificial transmutation
75
Match the following refining methods with the metals purified by them :
Column I (Refining Process) Column II (Metal Refined)
Answer
A. Mond’s Process (i) Zirconium, Titanium
76
In the Born-Haber Cycle for the formation of sodium chloride (NaCl), the following steps
are involved :
(i) Sublimation of Na(s) → Na(g)
(ii) Ionization of Na(g) → Na+(g)+e–
(iii) Dissociation of Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g)
–
(iv) Electron affinity of Cl(g)+e– → Cl (g)
–
(v) Formation of NaCl(s) from Na+(g) and Cl (g)
Which of the above steps is endothermic?
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) Only
77
Rate of diffusion of a gas is :
Answer
C. Directly proportional to square root of pressure and inversely proportional to
square root of density
78
Which among the following is a path dependant thermodynamic function?
Answer
D. W
79
What will be the change in entropy of 2 moles of an ideal gas expanding to ten times its
volume at 27°C?
Answer
A. 38.3 JK–1
80
Based on the reaction 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 + 198 kJ/mol, the decomposition of SO3 will
be favoured:
Answer
B. At low pressure and high temperature
81
Choose the wrong relationship among the following :
K c (RT )
Δn
Answer
D. K p = K x V Δn
82
In a reaction between A and B, doubling
Answer
A. quadruples the reaction rate and tripling
83
Which of the following statements about fluorescence and phosphorescence is incorrect?
Answer
B. Phosphorescence is a delayed radiative transition between two states of same
multiplicity
84
Which among the following is not an example of homogeneous catalysis?
Answer
C. Bromination of ethylene in a glass vessel
85
In the adsorption of a gas on solid adsorbent,
Answer
B. ΔS = − ve and ΔH = −ve
86
Which of the following statements correctly defines the Gold Number?
Answer
D. It is the minimum amount of a protective colloid (in mg) required to prevent
the coagulation of 10 mL of gold sol in the presence of 1 mL of 10% NaCl
87
In the decomposition of calcium carbonate at constant temperature, maximum number of
phases which can coexist in equilibrium is :
Answer
C. 3
88
During electrolysis, equal amounts of electric charge are passed through the solutions of
CuSO4 and AgNO3 . Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Answer
B. Less silver is deposited than copper because copper ions are divalent and this
makes the deposition per ion higher.
89
The extraordinary stability of carbon-carbon bonds in organic compounds is primarily
due to :
Answer
A. High bond enthalpy resulting from effective p-p overlap
90
The hybridisation of carbon atoms in the C−C single bond of HC≡C−CH=CH is:
Answer
C. sp-sp²
91
Choose the correct IUPAC for CH 3 − CH
Answer
B. 2-methylbutanal
92
Match the following :
List I List II
(i) propanamine and N-methylethanamine
Answer
D. tautomers
93
Resonance structure of the molecule does not have :
Answer
D. identical bonding
94
Which among the following has highest nucleophilicity?
Answer
C. CH 3−
95
The most reactive towards electrophilic substitution :
Answer
B. aniline
96
Which of the following ions is aromatic?
Answer
A. Cyclopentadienyl anion
97
The catalyst used for polymerisation of olefins is :
Answer
A. Ziegler-Natta catalyst
98
The sequence in structure of nucleic acid is :
Answer
C. base + pentose + phosphate
99
The Vitamin that contains both nitrogen and sulphur is
Answer
B. Vitamin B1
100
Which among the following exhibit stereoisomerism?
Answer
D. 2-methylbutanoic acid
————————
171/2025 18 A
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.