| Post Name | FISHERIES EXTENSION OFFICER -FISHERIES |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 087/2021 |
| Category Code | 028/2020 |
| Date of Test | 14 July 2021 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
North west coast of India accounts for almost 90% of the total ___________ landings
in India.
Answer
C. Non-penaeid prawn
2
“Choodavalai” with cod mesh size of 8 mm operated from plank built boats fitted with
outboard engines along Kerala and Karnataka coasts since 1985, is a type of
Answer
B. Ring seine
3
Articles __________ of the UNCLOS prescribe the area extending up to 200 nautical
miles ( _______ kms) off the coast as Exclusive Economic Zone.
Answer
C. 55-75; 370
4
Fishery of __________ are characterised by high interannual fluctuations due to
fishing or natural factors.
Answer
A. Small pelagics
5
Which one of the following is a carrageenan yielding seaweed ?
Answer
D. Kappaphycus alvarezi
6
__________ is obtained at a level of fishing effort that is lower than that required to
maximize yield in weight.
Answer
A. Maximum Economic Yield
7
Fishery of __________ is a role model for ecosystem based fisheries management
and is considered as the world’s best managed fishery.
Answer
D. Gadus chalcogrammus
8
Advantages of implementation of minimum legal size include
Answer
C. Both
9
Which of the following scheme of the Government of India has the target of increasing
fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 ?
Answer
C. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
10
___________ is an oceanographic payload carried by IRS P4 capable of retrieving
chlorophyll intensity, used for the identification of Potential Fishing Zones.
Answer
A. OCM
11
Which among the following is Froude’s number ?
Answer
C. Ratio between the speed in knots and the square root of the length of water
line in feet of a fishing vessel
12
Which among the following groups are correct with regard to the traditional use of
‘Catamaran’ as an indigenous fishing vessel ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
13
During the first stage of the mechanization of fishing boats in India, a few indigenous
fishing boats were found to be suitable for mechanization with a little modification.
They were successfully mechanized under the guidance of FAO experts. Which
among the following was found not suitable for mechanization ?
Answer
B. Rampani Boats of Karnataka
14
The lines representing the sections of ships or the boundaries of waterplanes are in
general fair curves which cannot be represented by a single mathematical equation.
To apply various arithmetical methods, it is assumed that the curved boundaries
consist of a series of parabolic curves. Which among the following methods is mainly
used for specific calculations such as stability ?
Answer
B. Simpson’s rule
15
The power available in the crank shaft of an engine after deducting the frictional loss
in the working of an engine is known as
Answer
D. Brake horse power
16
The form is used to describe the shape of ship’s hull. Comparison of one ship’s form
with another is made using a number of coefficients. The ratio between the actual
volume of the underwater form to the volume of a block with length equal to the length
between perpendiculars, breadth equal to the breadth of the vessel and depth equal
to the draft of the vessel is known as
Answer
B. Block coefficient
17
Choose the odd one among the following otter boards
Answer
A. Suberkrub
18
If 9000 m of a single yarn weigh 10g, which among the following is the correct
designation of this yarn ?
Answer
B. 10 Td
19
The triangular piece of webbing used in a trawl to give a smooth catenary curve to
the head rope of the trawl is known as
Answer
D. Jib
20
What is the correct cutting rate to make webbing with 100 meshes on the top and
40 meshes at the bottom and with 90 meshes depth, if the tailoring is done only on
one side ?
Answer
A. 1 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut
21
In the Redditch scale of hook numbering system the number designating the finest
hook is
Answer
C. 18
22
In Navigation, fixing present position or anticipated future position from a previous
position, using known directions and distances is known as
Answer
D. Dead Reckoning
23
If a vessel engaged in day fishing hoist the signal flag ‘P’, what is the message
conveyed ?
Answer
A. My net has come fast upon an obstruction
24
Which among the following is the International Code signal of distress ?
Answer
B. November Charlie (NC)
25
The length of warp released in bottom otter trawling depends on the depth of the
fishing ground and the nature of the sea bottom. The ratio of depth of the fishing
ground and the warp released is known as
Answer
B. Scope ratio
26
Fresh water fishes contain a high level of _____________ than that of in the marine
fishes.
Answer
D. Omega 6 fatty acids
27
The canning process in which the release of gases from fish tissue and inhibit
enzymatic reactions is achieved by the process called
Answer
C. Blanching
28
The preservative value of smoking is characterized by the ____________ content
present in the woods.
Answer
A. Phenolic
29
The transportation of frozen fish by air Cargo is done by using
Answer
C. Solid carbon dioxide
30
Sorbic acid is used as a preservative to protect the fish from
Answer
D. Fungal spoilage
31
The compound responsible for the foul odour due to spoilage of marine fish
Answer
A. Trimethylamine
32
Onset of rigor mortis the changes of the muscle texture is due to
Answer
A. ATP hydrolysis
33
Which amino acid is responsible for meaty flavour in scombroid fishes ?
Answer
B. Histidine
34
Isinglass has been prepared as a byproduct from
Answer
C. Air bladder
35
What is the ‘pit curing’ of fish ?
Answer
A. Wet salting
36
Which of the following is not a descriptive test for quality assessment of raw fishes ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
37
In TVB analysis, one of the following substance is considered as an excellent indicator
for quality assessment of squids is
Answer
B. Ammonia
38
The preventive measure is needed to be followed to reduce the effect of biotoxins
and pathogens in live fish under HACCP
Answer
A. Avoid fishing in contaminated area
39
The autolysis in post mortem changes can reduce by __________ which helps in
the quality and storage life of fatty fishes.
Answer
A. Evisceration
40
Among the following fishes, the maximum shell life is showed while it is stored in ice
from temperate conditions
Answer
C. Tilapia
41
Lakes that is rich in humic and organic substance are called
Answer
C. Dystrophic
42
Miscellaneous assemblage of organisms growing upon free surfaces of object,
submerged in water is called as
Answer
D. Periphyton
43
Frustules made of silica are characteristic of
Answer
B. Diatoms
44
The phenomenon with High Nutrient and Low ChlorophyII (HNLC) is also known as
Answer
D. Antarctic Paradox
45
The Redfield ratio, the
Answer
B. 106 : 16 : 1
46
As per the latest FAO data (FAO 2020) India’s contribution on World aquaculture
fish production is about
Answer
A. 8.5%
47
Which among the following statement is true ?
Increase of temperature in the aquaculture pond causes
i. Low oxygen solubility
ii. High metabolic rate of cultured species
iii. High oxygen solubility
iv. High ammonia toxicity
Answer
D. i, ii and iv
48
Ideal C/N ratio used in biofloc technology
Answer
B. 15 : 1
49
Which among the following is an inorganic extractive cultured in IMTA ?
Answer
C. Kelp
50
Dolomite used for adjusting the pH/alkalinity in aquaculture pond is
Answer
C. CaMg(CO3)2
51
Water flow through the RAS in a hatchery is in the order of
Answer
B. Culture tank – Mechanical filter – UV chamber – Biofilter
52
Predominant mineral present in the acid sulfate soils
Answer
A. Pyrite
53
Black-lipped pearl oyster farming in India is at
Answer
C. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
54
How many distinct zoeal stages are there in the larval development of
Macrobrachiumrosenbergii ?
Answer
A. 11
55
Deficiency of which amino acid causes scoliosis/lordosis in fishes ?
Answer
C. Tryptophan
56
Foam fractionator is used in the aquarium for the removal of
Answer
A. Organic compounds
57
Which of the following ornamental fishes produces non-sticky eggs ?
Answer
C. Zebra fish
58
Marine ornamental fish hatchery production developed in India for
Answer
D. All
59
Which among the following is not belongs to Chlorophyceae ?
i. Chlorella
ii. Chaetocerous
iii. Isochrysis
iv. Dunaliela
Answer
C. ii and iii
60
Name the marine rotifer.
Answer
A. Brachionusplicatilis
61
Which among the following is the mode of action of probiotic in fishes ?
Answer
D. All
62
Fresh water white spot disease in fishes is caused by
Answer
B. Ichthyophthiriusmultifilis
63
Tilapia Lake Virus (TiLV) belongs to the family
Answer
A. Orthomyxoviridae
64
The concept of human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to
the health of the ecosystem in which they exist is known as
Answer
C. One health
65
Which among the following statement is true about the monoclonal antibody ?
i. Batch to batch variability
ii. Expensive to produce
iii. Recognize only one epitope of an antigen
iv. Recognize multiple epitope of an antigen
Answer
B. ii and iii
66
Which among the following is an antifungal compound used in aquaculture ?
Answer
D. All
67
Most promising fish and shrimp immunostimulant isolated from the yeast cell wall
Answer
D. Glucans
68
Preferred order of electron acceptors in bioremediation
Answer
B. Oxygen, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate, Carbon dioxide
69
Which among the following is not true about SPF animal ?
Answer
C. Result from a specific breeding programme designed to increase resistance
70
Concentration of nitrite above 2 ppm in the culture tank can cause
Answer
C. Brown blood disease
71
Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting exactly one
head ?
Answer
B. 0.5
72
In which approach to probability the outcomes are equally likely to occur ?
Answer
A. Classical approach
73
The chance that a ship safely reach a port is 0.20. What is the probability that out of
3 ships expected, no ship would arrive safely ?
Answer
B. 0.512
74
Which among the following is true for a Poisson distribution ?
Answer
A. Mean = Variance
75
If the points in a scatter diagram show a downward trend from the left top to the right
bottom, the correlation is
Answer
B. Negative
76
If correlation coefficient = 0.8, coefficient of determination is
Answer
D. 64%
77
Sampling error is present in
Answer
B. Sample survey
78
What is the critical value for a two-tailed hypothesis test on a population mean when
level of significance is 5% and the population standard deviation is known ?
Answer
C. 1.96
79
Large sample theory is applicable when the sample size is
Answer
A. More than 30
80
The Analysis of Variance
Answer
D. F-test
81
Fisheries extension is _______ type of education.
Answer
C. Non-formal
82
Fisheries extension is working in harmony with the _______ of people.
Answer
A. Culture
83
The central element in learning situation is
Answer
C. Learner
84
A scientific representation of the original with model, specimen and painting is known as
Answer
D. Diorama
85
Which of the following statements is/are true about Audio Visual Aids ?
i. AV aids clarify the idea being presented.
ii. AV aids vitalize and make teaching more real.
iii. AV aids will not change the attitude or point of view of the farmers.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
86
Among the extension teaching methods, to develop skill among the farmers ______
method is used.
Answer
C. Method demonstrations
87
An outline of activities arranged for the efficient execution of the entire programme is
Answer
C. Plan of work
88
In programme planning process the objectives of the programme are determined by
Answer
D. Villagers and extension staff
89
__________ is a quick appraisal method.
Answer
Question Cancelled
90
____________ is viewed as a holistic approach to move beyond traditional crop
production emphasis to include all land based activities.
Answer
B. Broad Based Agricultural Extension
91
Which country stood at first in terms of fishery production ?
Answer
B. China
92
When will people search harder to find substitutes for fish ?
Answer
A. When the price of fish is high
93
Write the term to describe a practice in which indigenous knowledge of nature,
originating with indigenous peoples, is used by others for profit, without authorization
or compensation to the indigenous people themselves.
Answer
C. Bio Piracy
94
The agreement on the application of _________ sets out the basic rules for food
safety and animal and plant health standards.
Answer
B. Sanitary and Phytosanitary measures
95
Name the term that indicates the maximum catch that can be extracted from a fish
or other population in the long term.
Answer
C. Maximum Sustainable Yield
96
What is Pier ?
Answer
A. A raised structure in a body of water, typically supported by piles or pillars
97
What is the subject matter discussed in Section 22 of the Coastal Aquaculture
Authority Act, 2005 ?
Answer
C. Protection of action taken in good faith
98
What is the name of the project implemented by the Government of Kerala with
a view to increase inland fish production, create new employment opportunities
through development of inland and brackish water aquaculture and value addition
of aquaculture products ?
Answer
B. Matsya Samrudhi
99
What is a Small Scale Industrial Unit as per the definition revised in July 2020 in
India ?
Answer
D. An enterprise having investment in plant and machinery or equipment which does
not exceed Rs. 10 crores and turnover which does not exceed Rs. 50 crores
100
What is the coastal length of Kerala ?
Answer
B. 589.5 Kms
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