| Post Name | FOOD SAFETY OFFICER (Food Safety Department) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 007/2025 |
| Category Code | 006/2024 |
| Date of Test | 18 January 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The hypertonic solution used in osmotic dehydration of fruits and vegetables consists of
Answer
C. Sugar
2
A process where pre-packed food is exposed to radiant energy to kill microbes, pests,
prevent sprouting is
Answer
A. Cold sterilization
3
Pulsed light technology is mainly used for
Answer
B. Sterilization
4
In this advanced thermal processing method, the food material, which serves as an
electrical resistor, is heated by passing electricity through it
Answer
C. Ohmic heating
5
maillard Reaction is the result from chemical interactions at high heat between
Answer
C. Sugars and Amino acids
6
In ________ one end of the can may bulge and on forcing the bulged end back the other
end will bulge.
Answer
A. Springer
7
Which among these microorganisms can easily grow under anaerobic conditions,
producing the deadly toxin specially in canned foods ?
Answer
D. C. Botulinum
8
Which among the following is not an intrinsic factor which affects shelf life of a product ?
Answer
D. Storage condition
9
A nonthermal processing method that uses physical pressure to preserve food, instead
of heat, chemicals or irradiation.
Answer
A. HPP
10
Why is it that soft fruits cannot be preserved using freezing ?
Answer
D. Water in fruit tissues expands its volume on freezing thus damaging the cellular
structure
11
Sequence of rice milling process
Answer
A. Cleaning-dehusking-separation-polishing-grading
12
Addition of potassium iodide to salt is an example of
Answer
A. Nutritive supplement
13
Three stages of freeze drying food in order are
Answer
A. freezing, sublimation, secondary drying
14
Which among the following is a still beverage ?
Answer
A. Flavoured water
15
Process of breaking down intermolecular bonds of starch molecules in the presence of
water and heat is called
Answer
B. Gelatinization
16
IR radiation releases energy in electromagnetic wave form in the spectrum from
Answer
A. 0.75 µm to 1,000 µm
17
Rosemary is an aromatic herb that has been known from ancient times as a ________
of the mint family.
Answer
Question Cancelled
18
The activity of SO2 increases
Answer
A. With decreasing pH
19
Which among the following is the indicator organism considered for fixing the pasteurization
time and temperature ?
Answer
A. Coxiella Brunetti
20
In a carbonated drink the degree of solubility of carbon dioxide gas increases
Answer
A. At low temperature and high pressure
21
milk pricing system which discourages adulteration with water
i. Payment according to weight
ii. Payment according to use of milk
iii. Payment according to fat content of milk
Answer
C. Only iii
22
Considering the legal standards the maximum obtainable overrun in butter is
Answer
B. 25%
23
Which of the following casein submicelle are hydrophobic ?
i. alpha-s1-casein
ii. beta-casein
iii. alpha-s2-casein
iv. kappa-casein
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iii
24
Homogenization efficiency can be assessed by
i. Creaming rate
ii. NIZO method
iii. Size distribution method
Answer
D. All of the above i, ii and iii
25
Fluffy defect in ice cream is caused due to
i. Excessive overrun
ii. low solids content
iii. Excessive stabilizer content
Answer
B. Only i and ii
26
Which coagulant gives higher moisture content in channa ?
Answer
A. Calcium lactate
27
In aseptic packaging which of the following can be used for package sterilization ?
i. Superheated steam
ii. Hydrogen peroxide
iii. Peracetic acid
iv. Pulsed light
Answer
Question Cancelled
28
The velocity of fat globule is directly proportional to
i. Centrifugal acceleration
ii. viscosity of milk
iii. Radius of fat globule
iv. Separator sludge
Answer
C. Only i and iii
29
Which of the following is/are oil-in-water emulsion ?
i. Table cream with 25% fat
ii. Plastic cream with 85% fat
iii. Table butter
iv. margarine
Answer
B. Only i and ii
30
In aseptic packaging the layer that provides rigidity is
Answer
A. Paper
31
Which method of ghee production produces least amount of ghee residue ?
Answer
A. Pre-stratification method
32
Factors that can lower the heat stability of milk
i. developed acidity
ii. High total solids
iii. Homogenization
iv. Addition of chemical stabilizer
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iii
33
lumpy defect in milk powder may be caused due to
i. Insufficient drying
ii. Absorption of moisture
iii. drippage from pressure nozzle
Answer
D. All of the above i, ii and iii
34
Accelerated ripening in cheese can be done by
i. Increasing ripening temperature
ii. Addition of exogeneous enzyme
iii. Addition of whey protein
iv. Ultra filtration
Answer
B. Only i and ii
35
Reagent for detection of added urea in milk
Answer
B. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
36
Casein can be manufactured from
i. Skim milk
ii. Ghee residue
iii. Buttermilk
iv. Ultra filtrated whey
Answer
C. Only i and iii
37
In UHT heat exchanger the type of deposits formed is/are
i. Type – A
ii. Type – B
Answer
C. Both i and ii
38
Greasy defect in butter may be caused due to
i. Overworking
ii. Underworking
iii. High meting fats
iv. Overchurning
Answer
A. Only i
39
Which of the following is a baked traditional Indian dairy product ?
i. Shrikhand wadi
ii. Chhana podo
iii. Chhana murki
iv. Khurchan
Answer
B. Only ii
40
Major Dahi flavor compound is
Answer
C. diacetyl
41
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the tests used in an abattoir ?
I. malachite green test is used for detecting imperfect bleeding of carcass.
II. Remington and Fowrie’s test is used for detecting jaundice in carcasses.
III. malachite green test is used for detecting both jaundice and imperfect bleeding in
carcasses.
Iv. Remington and Fowrie’s test is used for detecting imperfect bleeding in carcasses.
Answer
B. I and II only
42
Which of the following statements are correct about the abattoir ?
I. The lairage area for cattle abattoirs should have adequate space and facilities to
hold at least three days slaughter.
II. The v-race is a path that connects the lairage and slaughtering section of an
abattoir.
III. The light intensity at the point of inspection in an abattoir should be a minimum of
540 lux.
Iv. The ageing room temperature is normally maintained between 10 – 15°C.
Answer
Question Cancelled
43
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the emulsifying properties of eggs ?
I. Egg yolks contain emulsifiers like lecithin that help to stabilise oil-water mixtures.
II. Emulsifying properties are essential in products like mayonnaise and salad
dressings.
III. Egg whites are equally effective as yolks in emulsifying mixtures.
Iv. The emulsifying action contributes to smooth textures in food products.
Answer
B. I, II and Iv only
44
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the quick freezing of meat ?
I. Quick freezing result in the formation of large ice crystals in the meat.
II. It improves the tenderness of meat by breaking down muscle fibres.
III. The freezing process occurs at temperatures below –30°C in most quick freezing
methods.
Iv. Quick freezing helps to retain the sensory and nutritional qualities of meat products.
Answer
B. III and Iv only
45
Which of the following statements are correct about the benefits of meat ageing ?
I. Ageing improves the overall texture and flavour of meat.
II. It reduces the water-holding capacity of meat, making it less juicy.
III. The ageing in meat is mainly due to the action of the enzyme cathepsins.
Iv. Ageing enhances the market value of meat by improving its sensory attributes.
Answer
C. I and Iv only
46
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about the certification of organic meat
in India ?
I. The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) oversees organic
certification.
II. Organic meat production prohibits the use of vaccines and antibiotics.
III. Farmers must undergo a conversion period to transition to organic practices.
IV. Certification allow the use of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in organic
meat production.
Answer
B. II and Iv only
47
Which of the following statements is/are correct about curing ingredients in meat
processing ?
I. Sodium nitrite is a basic curing agent used in meat products to develop cured meat
flavour.
II. Sugar in curing serves as a flavour enhancer and counterbalances the saltiness.
III. Phosphates in curing mixtures improve meat tenderness and water-holding capacity.
IV. Curing agents are primarily used to improve the colour and flavour of the meat
products and not mainly for preservation.
Answer
D. All of the above
48
Which of the following curing ingredients is/are responsible for the characteristic pink
colour in cured meat ?
I. Sodium chloride.
II. Sodium nitrite.
III. Ascorbic acid.
Iv. Potassium nitrate.
Answer
A. II and Iv only
49
Which of the following statements correctly completes the sentences based on the use
of irradiation in meat Preservation ?
By irradiation it is very difficult to destroy the ________ and ________ in meat and the
off odour that is developed during irradiation is described as ________.
Answer
B. virus, enzymes, wet dog odour
50
Which of the following statements correctly completes the sentence about the nutrient
composition of eggs ?
Egg is deficient in __________ and __________ mineral.
Answer
Question Cancelled
51
In canning or retorting, the time required to destroy a given number of organisms at a
specific temperature is known as
Answer
C. TdT-value
52
In species identification of animal products by PCR-RFLP, the sequence of which
mitochondrial gene is commonly employed ?
Answer
A. Cyt-b
53
The true indicator of faecal contamination in meat
I. E. Coli
II. Salmonella
III. Streptococci
Iv. Campylobacter
Answer
D. I only
54
Which of the following statements about poultry processing is/are correct ?
I. Bleeding time in chicken is approximately 2-3 minutes.
II. In soft scalding, the temperature used is around 50°C for 1.5-2 minutes.
III. Hard scalding is generally followed for water birds and breeders.
Iv. Scalding temperature of mature birds is around 65°C (sub-scalding).
Answer
B. I, II and III only
55
Which of the following statements about Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning are
correct ?
I. Staphylococcus aureus causes food poisoning mostly by intoxication.
II. Food poisoning by Staphylococcus aureus occurs due to ingestion of endotoxins.
III. Staphylococcus aureus produce heat stable toxin.
Iv. Inhalation is a common mode of food poisoning by staphylococcus aureus.
Answer
A. I and III only
56
Which of the following statements correctly describes the grading of a chicken carcass
with the wingette portion of the wing missing ?
I. The missing wingette affects the appearance of the carcass.
II. A chicken carcass with a missing wingette is graded as “A Grade”.
III. missing parts such as the wingette typically result in downgrading to “B Grade”.
Iv. The carcass may still graded for “C Grade” depending on additional defects.
Answer
B. I, III and Iv only
57
Which of the following statements correctly describes the carcass judgment for poultry
affected by the following diseases : Avian influenza, fowl pox, avian leukosis and infectious
bursal disease ?
I. Avian influenza typically results in hemorrhagic lesions in the trachea, lungs and
digestive tract, leading to total condemnation of the carcass.
II. Fowl pox presents with nodular lesions on the skin, comb, wattles and emaciated
but the carcass may be acceptable if internal organs are unaffected.
III. Avian leukosis causes tumors in the liver and other organs, leading to total
condemnation of the carcass.
Iv. Infectious bursal bisease often causes damage to the bursa of Fabricius, resulting
in weakened immunity and the carcass may be condemned due to secondary
infections.
Answer
B. I, III and Iv only
58
Which of the following statements about meat and meat products packaging system are
correct ?
I. In modified Atmosphere Packaging (mAP), nitrogen is primarily used as a filler gas.
II. Shrink film packaging eliminates pockets for purge accumulation.
III. To prevent irreversible browning in vacuum packaging, the oxygen level must be
below 500 ppm.
Iv. vacuum packaging offers excellent protection against freezer burn.
Answer
D. All of the above
59
Which of the following statements about gaseous stunning in pigs are correct ?
I. Carbon dioxide stunning results in relaxed carcasses, facilitating easier dehairing
and dressing.
II. CO2 stunning reduces the incidence of PSE (pale, soft, exudative meat) and muscle
splashes.
III. Inert gas stunning has a fast induction of unconsciousness but slow recovery,
requiring shorter exposure times to be effective.
Iv. CO2 stunning is associated with lower labour requirements and minimal operator
risks due to the absence of clonic convulsions.
Answer
B. I, II and Iv only
60
Which of the following practices best ensures the welfare and meat quality of pigs during
preslaughter care ?
I. Providing pigs with a molasses-water mix before transport help to prevent glycogen
loss.
II. Showering pigs with cold water in lairage help to reduce body temperature and
calm them.
III. mixing of pigs of different social group just before transportation help to minimise
fighting and stress.
Iv. Avoiding rough handling and isolating animals from their social group help to
reduce stress.
Answer
C. I and II only
61
Ribose is a ___________ sugar.
Answer
A. 5C
62
The enzyme elastase is produced in
Answer
B. Pancreas
63
_________ formation is needed for fat absorption.
Answer
D. micelles
64
Calbindin formation is induced by
Answer
B. vitamin d
65
Selenium competes with ____________ in biochemical pathways.
Answer
B. Sulphur
66
Curdlan is a type of
Answer
D. Betaglucan
67
Physical Activity Ratio(PAR) refers to
Answer
B. Energy cost of an activity per unit time
68
RdA of iron for adult women is
Answer
C. 29 mg
69
The hormone that inhibits calcium absorption
Answer
C. Calcitonin
70
For dim light vision
Answer
A. Cis retinal is converted to trans retinal
71
HCI and Potassium ferrocyanide are used to detect ____________ in tea.
Answer
D. Chicory
72
The most common polar adsorbent used in Column chromatography
Answer
A. Silica gel
73
lower Retention factor in Tl chromatography indicates
Answer
B. Higher polarity of solute
74
In reversed phase chromatography, stationary phase is
Answer
C. Non polar
75
Soap bubble flow meter is used in
Answer
A. Gas chromatography
76
Which is the solvent used in IR spectroscopy ?
Answer
B. Carbon tetra chloride
77
Common reagents used for dissolution of sample in AAS
Answer
B. HCl and HNO3
78
Fibre residue after chemical digestion is corrected for ash test with
Answer
D. Ignition
79
minimum quantity of sample of spices required for pesticide residue analysis is
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
The indicator used for detecting saponification value of fats
Answer
B. Phenolphthalein
81
Choose the correct statement on HACCP.
I. Acronym of HACCP is “Hazard Assessment and Critical Control Programme”.
II. The Quality management system is framed by safe product design, HACCP and
prerequisite GmP programmes.
III. HACCP system can be linear and the principles are applied as the whole.
IV. Critical limits for each CCP are defined by Codex Commission on Food Hygiene,
1997.
Answer
B. I and III are wrong; II and Iv are correct
82
Identify the animal model method which can be successfully used to test the Campylobacter
jejuni infection and to assess the virulence of Aeromonas spp.
Answer
C. RITARd model test
83
A fermented product produced by mixed culture of Streptococcus thermophilus and
Lactobacillus bulgaricus at 1 : 1 ratio is
Answer
C. yoghurt
84
Find out the incorrect statement about the intrinsic and extrinsic parameters influencing
the microbial growth of food.
Answer
Question Cancelled
85
Choose the correct answer on Clostridium.
I. Food poisoning strains of Cl. perfringens belongs to type A and produce only traces
of alpha toxin.
II. Botulism is caused by the ingestion of highly toxic soluble exotoxin produced by
Cl. botulinum while growing in foods.
III. Proteolytic strains digest casein and produce H2S, whereas the non-proteolytic
ones ferment mannose.
Answer
D. All the three are correct
86
Selective medium that can be used to culture and enumerate Staphylococcus aureus
from food sample is
Answer
A. Baird-Parker agar
87
Below mentioned are the advantages of Single Cell Protein (SCP) as a source of food,
except
Answer
D. The protein content is less
88
Phosphatase test is used to find out the efficacy of
Answer
C. Pasteurization
89
Identify the mismatched statement on food adulterants.
Food Adulterant
Answer
C. Oil – Unhygienic water, chalk powder, urea
90
Stabilizer used in ice cream is
Answer
D. GmS
91
Identify the correct statement/statements on enumeration of total number of bacteria from
food products
I. In mBRT, the time taken to reduce the dye is directly proportional to the number of
organisms present in the sample.
II. The mPN results are generally higher than SPC.
III. The dmC method is relatively simple, rapid and the results are generally higher than
SPC.
Iv. The mPN method is statistical in nature and requires the usage of large number of
glass wares.
Answer
C. Only II, III and Iv are correct
92
Pimaricin is an example of
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
Choose the wrongly matched statement.
Answer
D. Shigella infection in food = diagnosed by Nagler’s reaction and stormy clot
fermentation
94
The time- temperature combination used for pasteurization is based on the thermal death
time of
Answer
C. Coxiella burnetti
95
Identify the correct statement/statements on mycotoxins.
Answer
D. The toxicity of the potent aflatoxin decreases in the following order
B1 > m1 > G1 > B2 > m2
96
Which is the spoilage indicators of meat ?
Answer
A. Cadarerine and putrescine
97
Below mentioned are the serological tests used to diagnose brucellosis, except
Answer
D. Polymerase chain reaction
98
The following are enriched media except
Answer
D. Selenite broth
99
microscopic Agglutination Test is used for the diagnosis of which disease
Answer
B. leptospirosis
100
The light source used in fluorescent microscope is
Answer
B. Uv light
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