| Post Name | Food Safety Officer (SR for SC/ ST) |
|---|---|
| Department | Food Safety Category No : 616/2021 |
| Question Paper Code | 091/2022/OL |
| Category Code | 616/2021 |
| Date of Test | 18 November 2022 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The process of preserving food by rapid freezing followed by dehydration in vacuum is called as
Answer
C. Lyophilization
2
Sauerkraut contain
Answer
B. 2-3% salt and >1.5% Lactic acid
3
The complete active enzyme containing both protein and non protein part is known as
Answer
D. Holoenzyme
4
The TSS content of Squash is
Answer
B. 40 – 50%
5
This is a FDA approved non nutritive sweetener which is approximately 20,000 times sweeter than table sugar
Answer
C. Advantame
6
The ideal refrigerated storage temperature for perishable food is between
Answer
A. 1 to 4° C
7
This type of packaging material is hard, moisture resistant, low gas permeable and high impact strength
Answer
C. Polyvinyl chloride
8
Texturized vegetable protein is made from
Answer
D. All the above
9
Garlic contains this active compound which acts as antimicrobial agent
Answer
A. Allicine
10
In pulse milling mixing with red earth is known as
Answer
A. Wet milling
11
This is an effective mould inhibitor used in the bakery products
Answer
C. Propionate
12
Wheat proteins are low in this amino acid
Answer
B. Tryptophan
13
According to FSS Act the percentage of solids present in tomato juice is
Answer
B. 5 – 10%
14
Consumption of this vegetable in fresh or uncooked form leads to Favism
Answer
C. Faba beans
15
The radiation dose used to delay sprouting in vegetables and ripening in fruits is
Answer
A. Less than 1 kGy
16
Achieving food safety is multi-sectoral effort requiring expertise from disciplines such as
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
17
This organization aims to facilitate global prevention, detection and response to public health threats associated with unsafe foods.
Answer
B. WHO
18
The main function of FASSAI is
Answer
D. All the above
19
According to FSS Act 2006, any material which is or could be employed for making the food unsafe or substandard or misbranded or containing extraneous matter is called as
Answer
A. Adulterant
20
The seller shall be liable under FSS Act for any article of food which is
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
21
How many members are present in FSS authority apart from Chairperson ?
Answer
B. 22
22
This is an NABL accredited laboratory in Kerala
Answer
B. Neogen Food and Animal Security India Pvt. Limited
23
In FSS Authority, who is responsible for inspection of food business, drawing samples and sending it to analyst ?
Answer
A. Food Safety Officer
24
Food Safety Management Systems means adoption of
Answer
D. All the above
25
Indian Evidence Act came into force on �ℎ
Answer
B. 1 September, 1872 ��
26
Risk assessment, risk management, risk communication are the general principles of
Answer
B. Food Safety Act
27
FSSAI launched "Clean Street Food" project to raise the safety standards of foods sold on streets across
Answer
C. New Delhi
28
No court shall take cognizance of an offence under FSS Act after the expiry of the period of _______ from the date of commission of an offence.
Answer
C. One year
29
The punishment for carrying out a business without licence is
Answer
A. 5 lacs fine and 6 months imprisonment
30
In which state FSSAI has launched the first "Verified Milk Vendors Scheme" to bring unorganized milk suppliers under one programme ?
Answer
D. Gujarat
31
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Nisin ? i. Nisin is a food bio-preservative. ii. It is produced by strains of Lactococcus lactis sub spp lactis and generally recognised as safe substance. iii. It is a broad spectrum antibiotic with wide spectrum of activity against food spoilage/pathogenic organisms.
Answer
A. Only (i and ii)
32
Which of the following statement is wrong about the effect of Homogenization of milk ?
Answer
C. There is chance for formation of cream plug
33
Which of the following statement is/are wrong about probiotic yoghurt ? i. Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus are the only bacterial cultures used for the preparation of probiotic yoghurt. ii. Probiotic yoghurt contains probiotic and prebiotic components which beneficially affects human health. 8 iii. Consumption of yoghurt with probiotic count 10 cfu/g is recommended to get therapeutic benefit.
Answer
C. Only (i and ii)
34
An improved method of ghee preparation in which ghee is separated into three layers
Answer
D. Pre stratification method
35
Which process step is not involved in spray drying milk ?
Answer
C. Mixing atomized liquid with cool air
36
A test to differentiate jaundice and carotene pigmentation in meat
Answer
C. Rimmington and Fowrie test
37
Total condemnation of meat should be done in
Answer
A. Anasarca
38
The predominant driver for postmortem proteolysis and tenderization of meat
Answer
B. Calpain system
39
The cherry red colour of meat packed in high oxygen MAP pack is due to
Answer
B. Oxymyoglobin
40
Drip loss is relatively high in
Answer
D. Beef
41
Antibiotic streptomycin is
Answer
C. Glycoside
42
Fat in liquid state is
Answer
A. Oil
43
Steroid nucleus contain ________ number of carbon atoms.
Answer
A. 17
44
Omega 3 pentaenoic acid present in fish oil is
Answer
D. Timnodonic
45
_________ vitamin is a naturally occurring lipid soluble antioxidant.
Answer
B. E
46
Individual fatty acids can be separated by
Answer
C. GLC
47
High intake of polished rice or other refined food items lead to the deficiency of vitamin
Answer
D. Vitamin B1
48
___________ can be measured as the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen consumed.
Answer
D. RQ
49
Sum of all internal chemical activities that maintain body at rest is
Answer
D. Basal metabolism
50
Heterocyclic isoalloxazine ring is present in
Answer
A. Riboflavin
51
Most abundant carbohydrate in biosphere is
Answer
C. Cellulose
52
Carrier of endogenous triglycerides from liver to peripheral tissue
Answer
A. VLDL
53
Specific dynamic action of protein, fat and carbohydrate is in order
Answer
C. Protein > carbohydrate > fat
54
Coconut oil contain ____________ chain triacylglycerides.
Answer
C. Medium
55
Humans cannot synthesis vitamin C because of the absence of enzyme.
Answer
A. L-gulonolactone oxidase
56
Typhoid is caused by
Answer
A. Salmonella Typhi
57
Which of the following indicator is used in MacConkey agar ?
Answer
C. Neutral red
58
In which of the following staining reaction, acetone is used as decolourizer ?
Answer
C. Gram's staining
59
The mordant that is used in Gram's staining is
Answer
A. Gram's iodine
60
Types of botulinum neurotoxins produced by clostridium botulinum
Answer
A. Types A-G
61
The lowest temperature that is required to kill a population of microbes when applied for a specific time Nosocomial infection.
Answer
D. Thermal death point
62
By which of the following test, the basic potability of water is tested ?
Answer
C. Coliform count
63
Which of the following is not a paralytic illness ?
Answer
D. Brucellosis
64
Which of the following is true ? i. Bacillus, clostridium ii. Brucella, Vibrio iii. Escherichia coli, salmonella
Answer
C. (ii) and (iii) are Gram's negative but (iii) is non-spore forming
65
Which of the following is not an enzyme used in enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay ?
Answer
D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
66
Pre-baiting in rodent control is conducted to prevent
Answer
A. Bait shyness
67
Insect which feed on cured meat
Answer
B. Necrobia rufipes
68
Indian meal moth is
Answer
A. Plodia interpunctella
69
The most commonly used acute rodenticide
Answer
C. Zinc phosphide
70
An example of a live trap to capture rodents
Answer
D. Wonder trap
71
Which of the following statement is correct about Union Parliament ?
Answer
A. The Indian Parliament comprises of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
72
Who is the final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not ?
Answer
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
73
Consider 86 Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 i. It brought changes in Part-II of the Constitution ii. It brought changes in Part-III of the Constitution iii. It brought changes in Part-IV of the Constitution iv. It brought changes in Part-IV-A of the constitution Select the correct Answer
Answer
B. ii, iii and iv only
74
An American citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to i. Freedom of trade and profession (Art. 19) ii. Equality before law and equal protection of law (Art. 14) iii. Protection of life and personal liberty (Art. 21) iv. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Art. 20) v. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Art. 16) Select the correct answer :
Answer
C. i and v only
75
With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? i. Forest - Concurrent list ii. Stock exchange - Concurrent list iii. Post office savings bank - Union list iv. Education - State list
Answer
B. ii and iv only
76
Governor is supposed to reserve a State bill for the consideration of the President : i. If it endangers the position of High Court ii. If it is opposed to Directive Principles of State Policy iii. If it is Ultra-vires iv. If it is against opposition political parties Select correct answer :
Answer
D. i, ii and iii only
77
Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status ? i. Finance commission ii. NITI Aayog iii. National Development Council iv. Election Commission v. National Human Rights Commission vi. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Answer
B. i, iv and vi
78
Select the correct statement regarding fundamental rights : i. They are enforceable in the court of law ii. These rights are not absolute iii. These rights can be suspended during National Emergency except Article 20 and 21 iv. These rights are available only to Indian citizens v. These rights are contained in Part IV of the Constitution
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
79
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution i. "Identity card of the Indian Constitution" �ℎ ii. Terms socialist, secular and integrity added by the 44 Constitution Amendment Act, 1979 iii. Preamble is not part of the Constitution iv. "Heart and soul of the Indian Constitution" v. It specifies the objectives of the Constitution Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
Answer
C. i and v only
80
Corporation Tax :
Answer
D. is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
81
If WORK is coded as 4-12-9-16, then how will you code WOMAN ?
Answer
A. 4-12-14-26-13
82
The 20 term of the series 2 × 4 + 4 × 6 + 6 × 8 + ......... is
Answer
D. 1680
83
Find the odd among the following.
Answer
C. NORGAE
84
If today is Saturday, what will be the day 350 days from now ?
Answer
A. Saturday
85
Carbon : Diamond : : Corundum : ?
Answer
B. Ruby
86
The length and breadth of a room are 8 meters and 6 meters respectively. A cat runs along all four walls and finally along a diagonal to catch a rat. Then the total distance is covered by the cat is
Answer
C. 38 meters
87
Each consonant of the word TERMINATION is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series. If the new alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right), which of the following will be the sixth letter from the right end ?
Answer
A. M
88
Choose the missing letters of the given series out of the given alternatives : Z, Y, X, U, T, S, P, O, N, K, ?, ?
Answer
A. J, I
89
What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following number series ? 2√3, 2√5, √30, √42, 2√14, ?
Answer
D. 6√2
90
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word DEBONAIR.
Answer
B. Unsophisticated
91
Find the suitable verb from the options given : Bread and butter _______ my breakfast these days.
Answer
A. forms
92
Add the proper question tag : No one is ready, ............... ?
Answer
C. are they ?
93
Which one of the given options is the correct passive voice form of the sentence ? How have you solved the problem ?
Answer
B. How has the problem been solved by you ?
94
Choose the suitable verb from the options given : The principal as well as the teachers ___________ the meeting.
Answer
B. has attended
95
What is the correct reported speech of the sentence ? "Where did you go yesterday ?", said Raju to Sheela.
Answer
D. Raju asked Sheela where she had gone the previous day
96
Choose the correct preposition : Bimal has a fondness _______ animals.
Answer
A. for
97
What is the meaning of the expression 'cloud nine' in the sentence ? Divya was on cloud nine when her results came.
Answer
D. Happy
98
Find the synonym of extravagant.
Answer
C. lavish
99
Which one of the given sentences is grammatically correct ?
Answer
B. A pair of shoes is highly expensive
100
Find the correct one word for 'The practice of having many wives'.
Answer
A. Polygamy
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