| Post Name | Foreman - Kerala State Water Transport |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 008/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 098/2025 |
| Date of Test | 13 January 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
For pipe flow, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number
Answer
B. more than 4000
2
The time of oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be
Answer
A. decreases
3
The value of the compressibility of an ideal fluid is
Answer
B. zero
4
Which device is popularly used for measuring difference of low pressure?
Answer
D. Inverted U-tube Differential Manometer
5
Euler number is defined as the ratio of inertia force to
Answer
D. pressure force
6
Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in
Answer
A. Pressure
7
The lowest temperature at which the oils gives enough vapour
Answer
D. Flash point
8
Centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its blades are
Answer
C. bent backward
9
The hydraulic efficiency of Pelton turbine will be maximum when blade velocity is equal to
Answer
A. V/2
10
Geometric similarity between model and prototype means similarity of?
Answer
D. linear dimensions
11
For a Carnot engine, if the source temperature increases while sink temperature remains constant, the efficiency will
Answer
B. Increase
12
The main purpose of a scavenging process in a 2-stroke diesel engine is
Answer
B. Removing burnt gases and filling fresh air
13
In a single-stage reciprocating compressor, the volumetric efficiency decreases mainly due to
Answer
A. Clearance volume
14
In heat transfer, thermal conductivity (k) depends primarily on
Answer
B. Material properties
15
In the Otto cycle, if the compression ratio is increased from 6 to 9, the theoretical efficiency change is primarily governed by
Answer
B. Ratio of specific heats (g)
16
During the Morse test, the fall in brake power when one cylinder is cut off represents
Answer
C. Indicated power of that cylinder
17
In a multi-stage air compressor with perfect intercooling, the optimum intermediate pressure is
Answer
B. Geometric mean of inlet and outlet pressure
18
For a gas turbine working on the Brayton cycle, if the pressure ratio is increased, the thermal efficiency increases only up to a certain limit and then starts decreasing. This behavior is primarily due to:
Answer
A. Increase in compressor work dominating turbine work
19
In a Diesel cycle, if the cut-off ratio increases while compression ratio remains constant, the efficiency
Answer
B. Decreases
20
The specific fuel consumption (SFC) of a diesel engine increases when
Answer
A. When EGR started working
21
When the resistance offered by a section of the rod is against an increase in length, the section is said to offer a
Answer
A. Tensile stress
22
A rod tapers uniformly from 30 mm to 15 mm diameter in a length of 600 mm. If the rod is subjected to an axial load of 6000 N, find the extension of the rod. Take E = 2 × 10⁵ N/mm².
Answer
C. 0.05 mm
23
Maximum shear stress on oblique section of a bar carrying axial load occurs on
Answer
C. Planes at 45º or 135º with the normal cross section
24
A material has a Young’s Modulus of 1.5 x 105 N/mm2 and a Poisson’s ratio of 0.25. Bulk Modulus of this material is
Answer
B. 105 N/mm2
25
When a member is free to expand due to the rise of temperature, stress induced will be
Answer
D. Zero stress
26
Bending Moment in a cantilever of length 'l ' carrying a uniformly distributed load ‘w’ per unit run over the whole length and a concentrated load W at the free end follows
Answer
B. Parabolic law
27
Point of contra flexure occurs in beams that experience
Answer
C. Both sagging and hogging moment
28
A body of weight 100N is placed on a rough horizontal plane. Determine the coefficient of friction if a horizontal force of 80 N just causes the body to slide over the horizontal plane
Answer
B. 0.8
29
Type of rivet head mainly used for ship building is
Answer
B. Counter sunk head
30
Permissible load for the single V shaped butt welded joint of Tie bar 120 mm x 8 mm dimensions with the safe stress in weld 140 N/mm 2 is
Answer
D. 84000 N
31
Which of the following is the function of a bearing in a machinery?
Answer
B. Provide support and reduce friction for rotating shafts
32
What does the term ‘m’ in bearing characteristic numbers refers to?
Answer
C. Dynamic viscosity of the lubricant
33
Which of the following ferrous metals has the highest percentage of carbon?
Answer
C. Cast Iron
34
Flywheels are mainly used in an engine for:
Answer
B. Storing energy to minimize fluctuations in speed
35
In a spur gear, the velocity ratio is correctly defined as the ratio of:
Answer
C. Number of teeth on the driver to number of teeth on the follower
36
In a simple gear train, which of the following statement is correct regarding the idler gear?
Answer
B. It changes the direction of rotation of the Last driven gear.
37
Herringbone gears are mainly used for:
Answer
B. Transmitting power between parallel shafts
38
The primary function of a blow off cock in a boiler is to:
Answer
D. To remove accumulated sludge and sediments from the boiler.
39
The process of tempering is primarily performed on steel to:
Answer
C. Reduce the brittleness and increase the toughness after hardening
40
A governor is considered stable if:
Answer
A. For every speed within its operating range, there is a definite sleeve position.
41
The relationship between stroke and crank throw of an engine is
Answer
B. Stroke is twice the crank throw
42
Most turbochargers have a waste gate; it helps to
Answer
D. Prevent overboost
43
Which of the following is incorrect about cooling system
Answer
D. the inlet of the water pump connects to the engine block
44
The purpose of venturi in a carburettor is to
Answer
A. Increase air velocity
45
Which of the following statement is / are correct about thermo-syphon cooling system (i) Cooling depends only on the coolant temperature (ii) Cooling is independent of engine speed (iii) The rate of circulation is fast and sufficient
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
46
Which of the following is not the function of flywheel?
Answer
C. reduces friction on the engine
47
In autothermic pistons, steel inserts are used at the piston pin bosses to
Answer
B. control the direction of piston expansion
48
A four stroke engine is running at 1500 rpm, how many times in a minute does each valve open and close?
Answer
D. 750
49
Crankcase ventilation is provided to
Answer
C. remove blowby gases
50
The main advantage of pintaux nozzle is
Answer
A. better cold starting performance
51
In a conventional control chassis, where is the engine located?
Answer
C. In front of the driver’s cabin
52
What is the function of an electronically controlled variable-assist power steering system?
Answer
C. It performs both functions A and B
53
Which statement best describes how a stabilizer bar is connected in an independent front suspension?
Answer
B. It links the lower control arms on both sides to resist body roll during cornering.
54
A MacPherson strut front suspension typically uses how many ball joints per side?
Answer
A. One
55
Bump. steer happens mainly when?
Answer
B. During suspension travel with incorrect tie-rod geometry
56
The unloader valve in an air brake system is typically found
Answer
A. Integrated into the air compressor governor.
57
When air pressure enters the brake chamber, it pushes a diaphragm, which moves a pushrod connected to the:
Answer
D. Slack Adjuster
58
In a typical twin-tube telescopic hydraulic shock absorber where is the reserve fluid stored?
Answer
C. Between the inner and outer tubes
59
A metering valve delays front brake application until rear brake pressure builds to overcome which component?
Answer
C. The return springs in the rear drums
60
In the recirculating ball type steering gear, the balls travel between the nut and the
Answer
D. Worm shaft
61
Which of the following clutch facing material has the highest co-efficient of friction?
Answer
D. HWK 200 (non-asbestos)
62
In fully centrifugal type of clutch, the springs are:
Answer
C. Eliminated completely, so only centrifugal force provides the required engaging pressure.
63
In a constant mesh gearbox, the main shaft is
Answer
B. Splined shaft
64
The driving member connected to the engine in a single stage torque converter is called the
Answer
C. lmpeller
65
In front wheel drive car, which type of constant velocity(CV) joint is generally used at the wheel end of the drive shaft?
Answer
B. Outboard fixed type joint
66
The spherical end of the torque tube in torque tube drive fits into a cup that is fixed to the:
Answer
C. Frame or Cross member of frame
67
The tapered nut used to pull a spoke tight in a wire wheel is called
Answer
B. Nipple
68
Where is the third brush placed in a third-brush generator?
Answer
C. Somewhere where the flux becomes weaker at higher speeds.
69
In which Bendix drive does the pinion move away from the starting motor to engage the flywheel?
Answer
B. Outboard type
70
If the contact breaker gap is too small:
Answer
B. Points do not remain open long enough and engine may misfire.
71
Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the term “Transport Vehicle” refers to:
Answer
B. A public service vehicle, goods carriage, educational institution bus or private service vehicle
72
The main purpose of providing superelevation on horizontal curves is to:
Answer
C. Counteract centrifugal force
73
Which of the following reduces crankcase emission?
Answer
B. PCV
74
Which unit is called the “brain of the fuel injection system”?
Answer
C. ECM (Engine Control Module)
75
Which sensor informs the ECM about engine load?
Answer
B. MAP sensor
76
In an airbag system, which sensor detects sudden deceleration during a crash?
Answer
C. Impact (Crash) sensor
77
Which type of hybrid vehicle uses both engine and motor at the same time to drive wheels?
Answer
B. Parallel hybrid
78
Which part of ABS prevents pressure locking by releasing brake fluid during sudden braking?
Answer
B. Modulator valve
79
Catalytic converter mainly converts which harmful gases?
Answer
A. CO, HC, NOx
80
Which factor has the greatest negative impact on EV driving range?
Answer
C. Aerodynamic drag
81
Under what circumstances, one person can drive a Motor vehicle on a public place without valid driving licence?
Answer
D. None of the above
82
The Learner's Licence holder can drive a vehicle,
Answer
D. Throughout India.
83
A person has taken his Motor driving licence at the age of 51 years. The Validity of the licence is for,
Answer
A. 9 years
84
The minimum age of a person, who can drive a transport vehicle in a public place is
Answer
B. 20
85
Which form number is shown in a Motor driving licence?
Answer
C. Form 7
86
Which traffic sign is indicated by an Octagonal shaped one?
Answer
B. Stop
87
Choose the correct priority of the following vehicles
Answer
A. Fire service, Ambulance, Police
88
Speed limit of a towing vehicle is
Answer
C. 25 km/hr
89
A traffic sign with an inverted triangle, (apex pointing downwards) means,
Answer
D. Give way
90
Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer
D. None of the above
91
Section 134 dealt with
Answer
C. Duties in case of accident and injury
92
Riding on running board is prohibited under
Answer
C. Section 123
93
Section 129 applies to person above the age of
Answer
C. 4 years
94
Which section in MV act make it mandatory for every child to be secured by a safety belt or a child restraint system?
Answer
C. 194 B
95
Driving an un insured vehicle is punishable under which of the following section of MV act
Answer
B. Section 196
96
Motor Cab means a motor vehicle carrying not more than
Answer
B. 6 passengers
97
Section 112 refuses which of the following
Answer
A. Speed Limit
98
Bharath Stage-VI implementation date in India is
Answer
C. 01.04.2020
99
Green tax is levied under which section of Kerala Taxation Act.
Answer
A. Section 34
100
Power to seize or detain the motor vehicles is given under which section of Kerala MV act.
Answer
A. Section 11
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