| Post Name | General Manager - Kerala State Co Operative Agricultural and Rural Development Bank Limited |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 011/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 010/2022 |
| Date of Test | 4 February 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which among the following is an example of cooperative common wealth in Spain?
Answer
B. Mondragon Cooperative Corporation
2
Statement I : Cooperatives are member-owned and controlled, whereas socialist economies often feature state ownership and centralized planning Statement II : Cooperatives allow for private property and individual initiative, whereas communist economies abolish private property Choose the right answer about the statements :
Answer
A. Both Statements are right
3
Which among the following were categorised as non-essential principles?
Answer
D. Cash trading
4
ICA appointed a commission in 1964 to study the relevance of Rochdale Principles, which new principle was added by the commission in 1966?
Answer
A. Cooperation among cooperatives
5
Cooperatives are self help organisations controlled by their members. Which among the principles indicate this?
Answer
C. Autonomy and Independence
6
Which among the following is not a function of NAFED?
Answer
C. Credit facility
7
The type of housing society which constructs houses and allots to members on rental basis
Answer
B. Tenancy Housing Cooperative Society
8
Statement I : Lead societies are provided with additional capital of Rs.5,000 Statement II : Link societies are provided with a Managerial subsidy of Rs.2,000. Analyse these statements and choose the right answer :
Answer
C. Only Statement II is right
9
The NDDB was merged with Indian Dairy Corporation with effect from
Answer
D. 12th October 1987
10
The year 2015 marks an important milestone in the journey of IFFCO. Which among the following happened in that year?
Answer
A. Joint venture with Mitsubishi Corporation formed to setup agrochemical business in India
11
Who is the current Chairman of NABARD?
Answer
C. Mr. Shaji K.V.
12
Following is the point of view of a committee that highlight the scope and duties of a cooperative auditor. Which of the committee in cooperative sector enlisted below opined that "The terms of Act expressly require that the audit shall include an examination of overdue debts and a valuation of assets and liabilities" No. Committee I Mirdha Committee II Maclegan Committee III Mehta Committee Report IV Mishra Committee
Answer
B. II
13
The following are characteristic features of Unitary and Federal types of societies. Which of the combination of features match with the types of societies? I. Centralised Character II. Cooperative Democracy III. Decentralisation of authority and responsibility IV. Sacrifice Cooperative values
Answer
D. Unitary Federal I & IV II & III
14
You are given with a set of statements related to state aid to cooperatives. Identify the incorrect statement (s) in respect of indemnity of apex and central societies. I. Government have claim over the money received by apex society through liquidation process wherein the apex society have subscribed shares of a cooperative society using Principal state Partnership Fund which is subsequently wound up. II. If a society in which shares are purchased from the money's in the subsidiary State Partnership Fund is wound up or dissolved not only the Government but also the Apex society shall have claim against the central society that purchased shares in respect of any loss arising from such purchase. III. The money received by central society by way of share capital repayment, redemption of shares and dividend on shares shall be directly credited to account of apex society. IV. When an apex society is liquidated, the amount in the Principal State Partnership Fund shall be paid to the Government in to
Answer
C. I II III IV Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct
15
The fundamental characteristics of types of societies with respect to its formation and functioning are given below. Match the characteristics to types of formation/functioning of cooperatives. I. Use of existing tested Model II. Hospitable Climate for growth even in adverse circumstances III. Facilitate Government to Channelise Resources supporting local needs IV. Ideological and Political attractiveness V. Designed to meet changing circumstances
Answer
A. Blue Print Discourse I & IV II, III & V
16
Which one of the following statement(s) is (are) correct with respect to cooperative audit? i) Accounts of every society shall be audited within 60 days of the close of the financial year to which such accounts relate ii) The DCA shall publish a panel of auditors on designation basis as per the class and type of societies within 30 days from the close of financial year iii) In a cooperative society, the auditor carries out the audit on behalf of the Registrar and submits his reports to the Director of Cooperative Audit iv) It shall be the duty of Director of Cooperative Audit in consultation with Registrar to revise, amend or update audit manual in every five years as prescribed v) Section 63 of Kerala Cooperative Societies Act outlines the Powers of the Director of Cooperative Audit
Answer
C. option iii and iv only
17
Which of the following is/are appropriate statement with respect to constitution, functions, powers of cooperative Tribunal? I. District Judges are qualified to be posted at Kerala Cooperative Tribunal II. The Tribunal shall pass an order u/s 82 (1A) (1) within Sixty days with direction to communicate the copies thereof within 15 days to the parties thereof III. An application for review under section 85 (2) (1) by any party shall be made within 60 days from the date of communication of order of the Tribunal IV. The time limit for the filing of appeal petition before the tribunal shall be 60 days from the date of order, award or decision when decision is declared in the presence of party.
Answer
D. I & IV only
18
Which one of the following is/are the functions suggested by the Cooperative planning committee (1946) in respect of multipurpose cooperative societies? I. Act as an agent of Government to implement programmes for development of rural poor II. Finance to all types of agricultural crops III. Sale of agricultural products as agents through marketing cooperatives IV. Encourage subsidiary occupations for its members V. Arranging warehouse facilities, processing agricultural products and other services for betterment of standard of living of its members
Answer
B. II, III and IV only
19
The relevant sections related to forms and legal aspects of state aid to cooperative societies are given below. Match Column A specifying the nature/form, legal aspects related to assistance and Column B specifying relevant section as per Kerala Cooperative Societies Act 1969. Legal aspects/Nature of State aid/to cooperatives Section KCS Act 1969 I. State aid in the form of Loans and advances A. Section 47 II. Limited Liability of Govt. to subscription of shares in society B. Section 49 III. Prior approval of Govt for purchase of shares of societies using PSPF/SSPF C. Section 53 IV. Indemnity of apex and central societies D. Section 46
Answer
A. I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
20
As per rule 74 of Kerala Cooperative Societies Rules 1969, which one of the following is correct as to the procedure for filing execution petition? I. A copy of Original of order, decision or award shall be submitted with the execution application. II. The Registrar prepares demand notice in writing in duplicate stating name of defaulter and amount due from him III. Sales Officer verifies the correctness of application and enter into execution register IV. The decree holder may indicate the type of proceedings either attachment and sale of movables or immovable properties
Answer
C. IV only
21
The following facts are related to state aid to cooperatives. Which of the following fact (s) do (es) n't conform to Kerala Cooperative Societies Act 1969? I. Any amount to the credit of the PSPF of SSPF and the investments there of shall not form part of assets or liabilities of apex or central society as case may be II. Guarantee the repayment of principal and payment of interest on debentures issued by a society is a form of State aid to societies. III. The is the Apex and Central Societies that establish fund titled Principal State Partnership Fund and Subsidiary State Partnership Fund respectively out of money provided by Government IV. Prior approval from Government is needed to purchase shares in a society from the moneys in either Principal State Partnership Fund and Subsidiary State Partnership Fund.
Answer
A. all statements are correct
22
The salient features of cooperative credit societies act 1904 are tabled below in four sets (block). One or more of the set (s) contain an incorrect characteristic feature (s). You are required to identify the set (s) that contain incorrect characteristic feature of CCS act 1904. Set I Set II Set III Set IV Sir Devzil Ibbtson An act implemented No Central or apex One man One compiled 1904 act with no rules Society Vote Edward Law committee Audit by registrar once Legal Personality to Annual audit by 1901 recommended in a year societies RCS free of formation of 1904 act charge Act passed on March 25 Only individual as Formation of only Advance loans 1904 members credit societies to members only on real security Model of English friendly Act No X of 1904 No provision for Loans by one societies Act 1869 distribution of profit credit to other in rural societies with sanction of Registrar
Answer
A. Set I and IV only
23
With respect to history of cooperative legislation in Kerala, which of the following facts are correct? I. Travancore and Kochi states passed cooperative laws in 1913 and 1914 respectively II. Travancore and Kochin Cooperative societies act came into force in 1952 III. Advanced Cooperative Society was registered under Travancore Cooperative Societies Act which is the present Kerala State Cooperative Bank IV. The Malabar Cooperative Central Bank was registered in 1917 at Calicut.
Answer
D. Option I - not correct, Option II - correct, Option III - not correct, Option IV - correct
24
Which one of the following combination of features of Multi State cooperative Societies Act match with respective legislations? Legislative Characteristic MSCS Act 1984 MSCS Act 2002 I. Cooperative Year Year Ending on June 30 Year ending on March 31 II. Disposal of application Six months from the Four months from the for Registration date of Receipt date of Receipt III. Communication order of Fifteen days from the Seven days from the refusal of amendment of date of refusal date of refusal Bye Law by Central registrar IV. Time period for registration Within Six months from Within Three months of amendment the date of receipt from the date of receipt V. Period of ineligibility on One Year from the date 3 years from the date expulsion of member of expulsion of expulsion
Answer
A. I, II and IV only
25
The liability of an auditor of cooperative society may be either civil or criminal liability. Based on following table match appropriately cases of judgement and nature of civil liability highlighted by Hon'ble court in respective cases Case judgments Nature of Civil liability I. London Oil storage Co ltd 1904 A. In respect of purchases and expenses, auditor has to see that they are brought into accounts and not under stated II. London and General bank case 1895 B. Auditors duty is to be satisfied not only on arrangements for stock taking but also for correctness of the valuation by testing few of stocks III. Kinnton cotton Mills case 1896 C. Liability for damages on his failure to verify the existence of assets shown in Balance Sheet IV. Woolen Co Ltd 1904 D. Guilty of misfeasance
Answer
A. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
26
Which accounting standard governs cash flow statements in India?
Answer
B. AS 3
27
What is considered the "bonus" in a bonus issue of shares?
Answer
B. Free shares allotted to shareholders
28
What is the journal entry for issuing bonus shares?
Answer
A. Debit General Reserve, Credit Equity share capital
29
Which of the following is a method of departmental accounting?
Answer
C. Independent method
30
Which AS provides guidelines for Investment Accounting?
Answer
B. AS 13
31
The process of forming a company is called
Answer
B. Incorporation
32
Which document is legally required to issue shares in a public limited company?
Answer
C. Prospectus
33
The maximum share capital a company can issue is called
Answer
B. Authorized Capital
34
Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 governs the declaration and payment of dividends?
Answer
B. Section 123
35
The appointment of an auditor in a company is governed by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Section 139
36
Which of the following is a direct cost?
Answer
B. Employee wages
37
Which costing method is used for large projects such as construction?
Answer
D. Contract Costing
38
Service costing is applied in
Answer
C. Utility providers like transport or hotels
39
When the contribution margin is negative, it implies
Answer
C. Variable costs exceed sales revenue
40
Joint products are
Answer
A. Products derived from a common input
41
Income accruing in London and received there is taxable in India in the case of
Answer
A. Resident and Ordinarily resident only
42
Which of the following statements are true? Choose the correct option given below the statements. Statements : (i) A person can be resident in more than one country (ii) A company may be not ordinarily resident in a year (iii) There is no relation of the residential status of an individual to his citizenship (iv) Income from a business in Pakistan is taxable in case of non resident in India (v) A non resident Indian is not liable to pay tax on his income received in India
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) only
43
A private employee received salary of Rs.75,000 and entertainment allowance Rs.4,000 during the previous year. He spent Rs.5,000 on entertainment. He is entitled to deduction u/s 16(ii) is
Answer
D. None of these
44
Match List I with List II related to carry forward and set off losses with respect to AY 2022-23 and choose the correct option given below List I List II (a) Losses of non speculation business 1. Carried forward for 4 years and can be or profession set off against speculation profit only (b) Losses of speculation business 2. Set off against profit of specified business only (c) Short term capital losses 3. Carried forward for 8 years and can be set off against long term capital gain only (d) Long term capital losses 4. Carried forward for 8 years and can be set off against any business income (e) Loss from specified business 5. Carried forward for 8 years and can be set off against capital gain only
Answer
C. (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-5, (d)-3, (e)-2
45
Which ITR form to file for AY 2023-24 by LLPs?
Answer
B. ITR 5
46
The independent appraisal activity with in an organization for the review of the accounting, financial and other operations as a basis for protective and constructive services to the management is called
Answer
B. Internal Audit
47
The balance in the forfeited shares account after the reissue of all forfeited shares should be
Answer
D. Credited to Capital Reserve account
48
Which of the following statement is not true?
Answer
A. The Bonus shares shall be issued in lieu of dividend
49
Which of the following helps the auditor to have a complete grip over his staff including his juniors and seniors, the procedures to be followed and the portions of work actually to be performed by each of them and by himself?
Answer
D. Audit programme
50
The selection of transactions is made by the auditor in applying test check is
Answer
A. at random and no specific principles are followed
51
The Committee appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to review the working of credit authorization Scheme and suggest measures for giving meaningful directions to the credit management function of the Reserve Bank is
Answer
C. Marathe Committee
52
Which of the following statements are true? Choose the correct option given below the statements? Statements : (i) Payback period method measures the true profitability of a project (ii) Capital rationing and capital budgeting mean the same thing (iii) Rate of return method takes in to account the time value of money (iv) Increased use of debt increases the financial risk of equity shareholders (v) Net present value method takes in to account the earnings over the entire life of the project
Answer
D. (iv) and (v) only
53
ABC Ltd has sales of Rs.10,00,000, variable cost Rs.7,00,000 and fixed cost Rs.2,00,000 and debt of Rs.5,00,000 at 10% rate of interest. What are the operating and financial leverages?
Answer
B. 3 and 2
54
If earning per share is Rs.10, cost of capital 10%, what will be the market price of the share under different rate of return of 8%, 10% and 15% for the payout ratio of 40%?
Answer
A. 77,100,400
55
Which of the following is not a principle of working capital management policy?
Answer
C. principle of optimal capital
56
ETOP stands for
Answer
A. Environmental Threat and Opportunities Profile
57
Which one of the following is not a theory of ethics?
Answer
B. Distributive Justice
58
Which of the following is the correct sequence of strategic management process? Choose the correct option given below : (a) Embarking on Environmental Analysis (b) Statement of corporate mission and objectives (c) Identification of strategic alternatives (d) Debarking to corporate analysis (e) Choose of right strategy (f) Evaluating and controlling the implementation of strategy (g) Going ahead with implementation of a strategy
Answer
B. (b), (a), (d), (c), (e), (g), (f)
59
Which of the following is not a type of strategic control introduced by Mr. G. Schreyogg and Mr. H. Steinmann?
Answer
D. None of these
60
A strategy which is planned in such a detailed and integrated way that it is difficult to change it, once it has began to be implemented is
Answer
C. Programmed strategy
61
A process to elicit demand for, and price of securities
Answer
B. Book building
62
The percentage change in EPS due to a given percentage change in EBIT is called
Answer
A. Degree of financial leverage
63
"FRICT Analysis" of capital structure stands for
Answer
C. Flexibility Risk Income Control Timing
64
A process of estimating the future value of present cash outflows at a given interest rate
Answer
C. Compounding
65
Why do companies use "Green shoe option" in IPO's?
Answer
D. Stabilisation of post listing price of shares
66
The level of EBIT at which the EPS under two different financial options are equal is called
Answer
C. Point of indifference
67
The weighted average cost of new capital is called
Answer
B. Marginal cost
68
A stream of equal payments at fixed intervals expected to continue forever is termed as
Answer
A. Perpetuity
69
________ theory proves that it is possible to increase the value of the firm by increasing the volume of debt in the capital structure of the firm.
Answer
C. Fixed Ke theory
70
Capital mix of a company including long term, medium term and short term finances is called
Answer
A. Financial structure
71
The assumptions of Net operating Income Theory does not include the following : (i) value of equity found by adding value of debt to value of firm (ii) value of firm is obtained by capitalising the NOI with the overall cost of capital (iii) there is no corporate tax (iv) cost of debt is higher than overall cost (v) overall cost of capital remain constant irrespective of debt in capital structure
Answer
C. only (i) and (iv)
72
Given : Operating Fixed cost Rs.50,000 Sales Rs.200,000 P/V ratio 60% The operating leverage is
Answer
C. 1.7
73
"Robert Hamada equation" used in the concept of cost of capital is applied for measuring the risk of
Answer
B. Bond holders
74
The percentages of debt, preferred stock and common equity that will maximise the firm's stock price
Answer
B. Optimal capital structure
75
A fixed sum of money paid at the end of a period is called as
Answer
B. Ordinary annuities
76
Role of financial manager in a company (i) Framing asset management policies (ii) Productivity enhancement activities (iii) Forecasting and financial planning (iv) Understanding capital market (v) Employee retention and engagement (vi) Risk management (vii) Negotiations for new outsider financing
Answer
C. (i), (iii), (iv), (vi), (vii)
77
Which of the following statements is/are capital budgeting decisions? (i) Accept/reject decision (ii) Mutually exclusive project decision (iii) Capital rationing decision (iv) Capital structure decision
Answer
C. Only (i, ii and iii)
78
Which of the following statements is/are not correct about ARR method of capital budgeting techniques? (i) Profit means profit after tax but before depreciation (ii) Profit means profit after depreciation and tax (iii) This method can be used to make accept/reject decision of proposal (iv) Project with higher rate of return is selected for investment
Answer
A. Only (i)
79
A project has a cash outlay of Rs.1,00,000 and generates cash inflows of Rs.20,000, Rs.50,000, Rs.20,000 and Rs.20,000 for the first four years. Then the pay back period of the project is
Answer
B. 3 years, 6 months
80
The details of a project are given below. Which of the following statements is/are correct to the situation? Present value of cash outflow - Rs.1,00,000 Cash inflow for the two years - Rs.80,000 each Present value of cash inflow - Rs.1,38,800 Present value factor is 10% (i) Its NPV is Rs.60,000 (ii) Its NPV is Rs.38,800 (iii) Its profitability index is 1.39 (iv) Its profitability index is 1.6
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iii)
81
Which of the following statements is/are correct while comparing NPV and IRR? (i) Both NPV and IRR do not consider time value of money (ii) NPV and IRR methods give contradictory results in case of mutually exclusive projects having different cash outlays (iii) When NPV is positive then IRR is less than the required rate of return (iv) When NPV is positive then IRR is greater than the required rate of return
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iv)
82
Information regarding two mutually exclusive projects are given below. Project 1 Project 2 PVCO Rs.50,000 Rs.80,000 NPV Rs.6,812 Rs.7,418 IRR 25% 20% Which project do you recommend for making investment?
Answer
C. Project 2
83
Which of the following capital budgeting methods is/are not a discounted cash flow method? (i) Net present value method (ii) Internal rate of Return method (iii) Profitability index method (iv) Accounting rate of return method
Answer
A. Only (iv)
84
Which of the following statements is correct to benefit-cost ratio?
Answer
B. Investment proposals having benefit-cost ratio greater than one is accepted
85
Which of the following statements is/are correct about dividend policy? (i) Magnitude of earnings does not affect the dividend policy (ii) Inflation is one of the factors that affect dividend decision (iii) Future financial requirement is one of the determinants of dividend policy (iv) Desire of shareholders for dividend does not affect the dividend policy
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iii)
86
Which of the following is not an example for stable dividend policy?
Answer
C. Regular dividend
87
_________ is a form of dividend in which the firm promises to pay the dividend to shareholders at a future specific date
Answer
A. Scrip dividend
88
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Walter's dividend theory? (i) One of the assumptions is that the firm's internal rate of return is constant (ii) Optimum dividend pay-out to a growth firm is 100% (iii) Growth firm can maximise its value by retaining 100% of its earnings (iv) A normal firm should distribute the entire earnings as dividend, which will maximise its value
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
89
Which of the following statement is correct to MM approach of dividend decision?
Answer
C. The wealth of the shareholders does not change with the payment of dividend, when the firm has an investment opportunity
90
According to Gordon's approach of dividend decision, firm having rate of return on investment is less than the required rate of return
Answer
C. The value will be maximum at 100% dividend pay-out
91
Which of the following statements is/are correct to irrelevance concept of dividend decision? (i) Dividend decision affects the wealth of shareholders (ii) Dividend decision influence the value of the firm (iii) Dividend decision does not affect the value of the firm (iv) A firm should retain the earnings if there is a feasible investment opportunity for maximising the value
Answer
A. Only (iii) and (iv)
92
Which of the following formula is Walter's share valuation model?
Answer
D. P = D/(ke-g)
93
Which of the following statements is/are correct to working capital? (i) Fund invested in current assets is called gross working capital (ii) The difference between current assets and current liabilities is called net working capital (iii) Working capital is the excess of current liabilities over current assets (iv) Excess of current asset over current liabilities is called positive working capital
Answer
B. All except (iii) are correct
94
Which of the following is not an impact of inadequate working capital?
Answer
C. It can exploit favourable market conditions
95
Which among the following is/are the methods of estimating working capital requirement? (i) Regression analysis method (ii) Cash forecasting method (iii) Operating cycle method (iv) Percentage of sales method
Answer
D. All the above
96
Details of a firm related to its working capital is given below. Cost of goods sold = Rs.90,000 Operating cycle = 60 days (360 days in a year) Minimum desired level of cash balance = Rs.50,000 What will be the expected working capital of the firm?
Answer
A. Rs.65,000
97
Which of the following statements is/are not correct to estimation of working capital? (i) Under cash cost approach depreciation and profit margin are considered for estimating working capital (ii) Requirement of working capital increases with the increase in the length of operating cycle (iii) Minimum desired cash and bank balance is to be added while estimating working capital (iv) Under total approach all costs including depreciation are considered for working capital estimation
Answer
C. Only (i)
98
Holding cash for meeting various contingencies is known as
Answer
B. Precautionary motive
99
Match the following 1. EOQ (i) Materials are classified based on the value of consumption 2. ABC analysis (ii) Classification of inventories on the basis of period of holding 3. VED analysis (iii) The size of the lot to be purchased each time 4. Aging schedule (iv) Classification of spare parts on the basis of its requirement and urgency
Answer
B. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
100
__________ is a type of factoring under which the risk of bad debt is to be borne by the client
Answer
D. Recourse factoring
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.