| Post Name | General Manager - Kerala State Cooperative Coir Marketing Federation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 133/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 150/2022 |
| Date of Test | 3 August 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Functional managers are responsible
Answer
A. For A single Area of Activity
2
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on the theories proposed by
Answer
B. Carl Jung
3
Which management concept suggests that low-importance decisions be handled by subordinates, so that managers can focus on high-importance decisions?
Answer
A. Management by Exception
4
When a decision that has to be taken at the top level is entrusted with a lower level, the organization practices
Answer
A. Decentralisation
5
The design of the system is included in the organizational structure that ensures which one of the following
Answer
D. Eļ¬ectiveness
6
Divisional structure is a set of autonomous unit, each typically machine bureaucracies in itself, coordinated by a
Answer
C. Central headquarters
7
A manager spends up to 95 percent of the time _______?
Answer
A. Communicating
8
Which of the following is applied here when managers rely on their personal judgment in addressing problems that arise in organizations?
Answer
C. Rule of thumb
9
______are the steps to carry out the activities i.e. the exact manner in which work is to be performed.
Answer
B. procedures
10
"If goals are well deļ¬ned it becomes easy to achieve organisational goals". This indicates the _____ nature of planning.
Answer
C. Directive
11
Write the correct sequence of the following stages of communication (i) Encoding (ii) Decoding (iii) Ideation (iv) Transmission (v) Feedback
Answer
D. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) and (v)
12
Which of the following is/are not barriers to eļ¬ective communication? (i) Improper medium (ii) By passing (iii) Active listening (iv) Physical distractions (v) Cultural diļ¬erences
Answer
B. (iii) only
13
Which of the following is most accurate concerning communication?
Answer
C. Understanding is necessary for communication to take place
14
The main features of interactional model of communication are (i) It is best suited for media (ii) The Feedback is done in circles (iii) It is associated with the concept of ļ¬eld of experience (iv) This model is also known as convergence model (v) Here the communication always happens between two familiar persons
Answer
D. (iii), (iv), (v) only
15
Most of us converse using ____________ and __________ in addition to words when we speak
Answer
B. Gestures and body language
16
The following are the elements of communication process
Answer
A. Sender, Message, Encoding and Channel
17
Which one of the following is excluded from the list of communication barriers?
Answer
C. Philosophical
18
What is the correct structure of the letter among the following options?
Answer
A. Address, date, salutation, subject, body, signature, enclosure
19
Which of the following is/are not formal channels of communication? (i) Downward communication (ii) Upward communication (iii) Horizontal communication (iv) Grapevine communication (v) Diagonal communication
Answer
C. (iv) only
20
Oral communication ensures ___________ and ________
Answer
B. Adequate attention; immediate response
21
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the elements of ļ¬nancial statements? (i) Asset, liability and equity are used to measure the ļ¬nancial position of the ļ¬rm. (ii) Income and expenses are used to measure the proļ¬t of the ļ¬rm.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
22
Assets and liabilities are shown as a percentage of total assets and total liabilities in a
Answer
B. Common size balance sheet
23
Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the beneļ¬t gained from the analysis of ļ¬nancial statements (i) Assess the operational eļ¬ciency of the ļ¬rm (ii) Find out the reasons for change in the ļ¬nancial position of the ļ¬rm (iii) Provide information regarding the policy outcomes of the ļ¬rm
Answer
D. Only (iii)
24
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the adjustment for 'unrecorded purchase of good'. (i) Added to "Sundry creditors" on the liability side of balance sheet (ii) Added to "purchases" in the debit side of proļ¬t and loss account
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii)
25
If assets and liabilities are arranged in a balance sheet according to their realisability and payment preference, it is
Answer
B. In order of Liquidity
26
Which of the following statements are/is correct about the writing down of patents at the end of each accounting year (i) increasing the expense of reducing the operating proļ¬t (ii) Show the asset at reduced value in the balance sheet
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
27
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the methods of depreciation (i) Straight line method is useful for assets which provide more beneļ¬t in earlier year (ii) Written down value method is useful for assets which provide equal beneļ¬t each year
Answer
D. Both (i) and (ii)
28
____________ is the practice of spreading the cost of an intangible asset over that asset's useful life
Answer
C. Amortisation
29
Salary which is due but not yet paid is an example of
Answer
A. Accrued liabilities
30
____________ principle tries to evaluate each and every transaction in terms of its impact on owner's equity.
Answer
B. Accrual
31
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about current ratio? (i) Current ratio represents the margin of safety available to creditors and other current liabilities (ii) Current ratio measures only quality and not quantity of current assets and current liabilities (iii) Current ratio can be easily manipulated by excluding certain short term liabilities from current liabilities
Answer
D. Statements (i) and (iii) only
32
If current liabilities are Rs. 25,000, Quick ratio is 1.5:1 Inventory Rs. 12,500, what is the amount of current assets?
Answer
D. Rs. 50,000
33
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Debt-equity ratio is a solvency ratio (ii) Operating leverage is also known as Trading on equity (iii) Return on capital employed is a turnover ratio
Answer
A. Statement (i) only
34
If an organizations Quick ratio is 2:1 , Inventory Rs. 60,000 and Total current liabilities 1,20,000, what is its current ratio?
Answer
C. 2.5:1
35
If sales for an year is Rs. 3,00,000, Gross proļ¬t Ratio on cost of goods sold is 25%, what is the amount of Gross proļ¬t?
Answer
C. Rs. 60,000
36
The ratio of current Assets (Rs. 3,00,000) to current liabilities (Rs. 2,00,000) is 1.5:1. The management of the ļ¬rm is interested in maintaining a current ratio of 2:1 by paying cash to some part of current liabilities. Hence the amount of current liabilities which must be paid for this purpose is
Answer
B. Rs. 1,00,000
37
Which of the following is a long term solvency ratio?
Answer
C. Debt-Equity ratio
38
Statement (i) : High geared capital structure may be an indicative of over capitalization Statement (ii) : Low geared capital structure may be an indicative of under capitalization
Answer
D. Both statements are false
39
Which of the following is a Revenue Statement Ratio
Answer
C. Gross proļ¬t Ratio
40
Statement (i) Decrease in the cost of goods sold without corresponding decrease in selling price may result in high gross proļ¬t ratio Statement (ii) Overvaluation opening stock or undervaluation of closing stock may resultin reduction of Gross proļ¬t ratio
Answer
C. Both statements are true
41
All of the following decisions comes under the scope of operations management except for
Answer
C. Financial analysis
42
Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
Answer
B. Cement
43
Kaizen is a _____ process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity improvement
Answer
A. Daily
44
In ABC analysis the category 'A' includes items with small quantity but high
Answer
A. Value
45
Planning and controlling the quality of products and services is a type of decision
Answer
D. Control
46
The function of __________ involved the decision when, what, how and why to produce goods
Answer
C. Production planning
47
RPN in total quality management denotes
Answer
A. Risk Priority Number
48
The number of quality management principles on which ISO 9000 and ISO 9001 are based on
Answer
C. Seven
49
ISO 14000 family is related with companies and organizations of any type that require practical tools to manage their ___________ responsibilities
Answer
B. Environmental
50
BIS is planned under the Ministry of __________ in Idnia
Answer
C. Consumer Aļ¬airs, Food and Public Distribution
51
Supplier rating system is also referred to as a ________ used to obtain an overall rating og suppliers performance
Answer
C. Score card system
52
The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control is
Answer
A. Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up
53
The bill of material does not consists of _______ part?
Answer
D. Price of the
54
VED analysis of inventory management stands for _________
Answer
A. Vital - Essential - Desirable
55
The material handling device which moves materials between two ļ¬xed points is
Answer
D. Conveyors
56
The most important part of ERP implementation is
Answer
C. Gap analysis
57
Among the tools of TQM, the tool usually used to aid in understanding the sequence of events through which a product travels is a
Answer
D. Flow chart
58
A ļ¬sh bone diagram is also known as
Answer
A. Poka-yoke diagram
59
The _____________ warehousing methodology is one in which goods are not actually warehoused in a facility. Trucks from suppliers, each carrying a diļ¬erent type of product, deliver goods to a facility. There the inventory is broken into smaller lots and quickly loaded onto store-bound trucks that carry a variety of products, some from each of the supplier trucks
Answer
D. Cross-docking
60
In 'make or buy' decision, it is proļ¬table to buy from outside only when the supplier's price is below the ļ¬rm's own
Answer
B. Variable cost
61
Write the correct sequence of the following stages of planning process (i) Specify objectives (ii) Generate strategies (iii) Evaluate strategies (iv) Monitor results
Answer
B. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
62
The following is/are the problems of forecasting (i) Technical limits (ii) Epistemological limits (iii) Political limits (iv) Pre-ļ¬xed and narrowly-deļ¬ned forecasting models
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
63
The agreement of a group of experts in consensus is required to conclude in the followoing method of forecasting
Answer
A. Delhi method
64
Identify the activity(s) which is/are not connected with the activities for managing the ļ¬ow of material
Answer
C. Selection and training of material managment team
65
The following is not a method of inventory control
Answer
B. Economic value added
66
________ is the ļ¬rst activity of purchasing cycle.
Answer
C. Recognizing the need for procurement
67
XYZ Ltd. is currently producing a component at Rs.9 per unit (Variable cost is Rs.6, and Fixed is Rs.3). The selling price of the component is Rs.12. Now Mr. A, a supplier has agreed to supply the component at Rs.7 per unit and the company has given the order to Mr. A. What is the amount of increase or decrease in proļ¬t per unit to XYZ Ltd. after the deal?
Answer
D. Decrease in proļ¬t Rs.1
68
The material budgets in a typical manufacturing ļ¬rm involve a determination of : (i) The quantities and cost of raw materials to be used. (ii) The quantities and value of materials to be carried in the inventory. (iii) The quantities and cost of materials to be purchased. (iv) The quantity and value of ļ¬nished goods to be carried in the inventory.
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
69
Materials management mainly focuses on :
Answer
B. Management of raw material or components required for continuous production
70
Identify the situations where formal planning is expected to be most useful? (i) The task is complex (ii) Large changes occur (iii) Uncertainty is high (iv) The market is ineļ¬cient
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
71
What are the diļ¬erent methods of material procurement? (i) Restricted tender (ii) Competitive negotiation (iii) Direct procurement (iv) Open tender
Answer
D. All of the above
72
What are the Five R's of procurement?
Answer
C. Right quantity, Right quality, Right price, Right Time and Place, Right source
73
Choose the correct answer for Lead Time from the following
Answer
A. It is the diļ¬erence between the time of placing an order and the time of arrival of material
74
The best form of method of payment for an importer would be
Answer
B. Open account
75
Identify the one which is not an activity for quality inspection
Answer
C. Quality audit
76
Identify the one which is not coming under public procurement cycle:
Answer
D. Accounting of purchase
77
Govt. policy about exports and imports is called
Answer
A. Commercial policy
78
Which of the following is not a trade barrier?
Answer
B. Export scrutiny
79
Under Rule 155 of the GFR, 2017, goods costing above Rs. ____________ may be purchased without inviting quotations or bids
Answer
C. Rs. 25,000
80
The General Financial Rules, 2017 (Rule 144) lay down the Fundamental principles of public procurement. identify the one which not in the Rules
Answer
D. Cost principle
81
The process of taking physical count of some items of stock daily and thus cover all the items in the store, at least once a year, is known as
Answer
A. Perceptual stock taking
82
Which of the following statements are/is correct about the various types of stores (i) Materials received from outside awaiting inspection are kept in a quarantine store (ii) Goods on which customs or excise duty has not been paid in kept in a bonded store (iii) Consumables like gloves, aprons and eye-shield are kept in a salvage store
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
83
Which among the following is not a content of stores manual?
Answer
C. Store location
84
Which of the following statement is/are correct about stores building (i) Nissen huts are very economical and are used for bulk stores (ii) Storeyards are used to keep heavy and bulky items like iron and wooden logs
Answer
B. Both (i) and (ii)
85
The appropriate method for deciding the location of a warehouse that cater to more than one market is
Answer
D. Centre of Gravity
86
Which among the following is not correct about grid layout?
Answer
C. It is a circuit that loops around the entire store
87
_____________ are specially designed platforms for moving stacked goods as a whole load
Answer
A. Pallets
88
Which of the following statement is/are correct about a store issue voucher (i) Stores department issue the material on receipt of store issue voucher (ii) Stores department generate store issue voucher after issuing the material (iii) Stores department has to send a copy of store issue voucher to the department that has initiated the withdrawal of material
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
89
In Acceptance sampling, the probability that a good lot is rejected is known as
Answer
A. Producer's risk
90
Which among the following statement is not correct about Goods Received Note (GRN) (i) GRN is prepared by the purchase department (ii) GRN is an internal document produced by the customer (iii) GRN facilitates Cross checking with purchase orders and invoices
Answer
D. Only (i)
91
The extra raw materials or work in progress kept aside in a production line to manage the occurance of break down or low stock situation is known as
Answer
D. Decoupling Inventory
92
___________ is the criteria used in vital Essential and Desirable classiļ¬cation of inventory
Answer
A. Criticality
93
Which of the following is/are reason for obscelete and surplus stock (i) Change in the method of production (ii) Change in the design of the product (iii) Unforseen reduction in demand
Answer
C. Only (iii)
94
_________ means the controlled removal of material from waste stream for reuse, recycling or sale
Answer
C. Salvaging
95
The contract for the sale of scrap where the seller has to consider the prevalent market price is
Answer
B. Ab initio negotiation
96
Which among the following is not part of selective inventory control?
Answer
C. EOQ
97
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Kodak system of codiļ¬cation (i) It consists of 10 digits of numeric codes (ii) The grouping is based on source of supply (iii) All materials are divided into 10 basic classiļ¬cation
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii)
98
The BRISCH system of codiļ¬cation consists of _____________ digits
Answer
A. 7
99
Which of the following statements is correct about standardisation?
Answer
D. All the above
100
Which of the following is not a detail shown in the materials returned note
Answer
C. Supplier
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.