| Post Name | General Manager Project - Kerala State Co Operative Coir Marketing Federation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 089/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 498/2023 |
| Date of Test | 7 August 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements are correct ? i. Controls pertain to means and control pertains to an end. ii. Controls are analytical and concerned with what was. Control is normative and is concerned with what ought to be. iii. Controls refer to measurement and information whereas control is related to direction. iv. Controls deal with facts and events of the past. Control deals with expectations.
Answer
C. All of the above
2
In which form of organization structure are Strategic Business Units created ?
Answer
B. Divisional structure
3
___________ denotes the authorization of managers at various levels to make decisions.
Answer
B. Delegation
4
_____________ is concerned with action or performance and is aimed at evaluating the performance of the organization as a whole or its diļ¬erent components-strategic business units, divisions and departments.
Answer
A. Operational control
5
___________ involves designing suitable courses of action in anticipation of likely changes in the relevant environment.
Answer
D. Proactive planning
6
Narrow span of management results
Answer
A. Tall structure
7
___________ is based on the team concept in which each employee develops high degree of understanding towards others and shares common goals.
Answer
D. Collegial model
8
_____________ is the intended goal that prescribed deļ¬nite scope and suggests direction to the planning eļ¬orts of a manager.
Answer
A. Objective
9
In decisional role, the manager performs roles of i. Entrepreneur ii. Figurehead iii. Disturbance handler iv. Negotiator
Answer
C. Only (i, iii and iv)
10
'Every manager has a planning function to perform. Planning extends throughout the organization.' The above statement implies i. Pervasiveness of planning ii. Primacy of planning iii. Planning premises iv. Flexibility in planning
Answer
C. Only (i)
11
__________ is a problem in two way communication in the form of internal conļ¬ict and anxiety that occurs when people receive information incompatible with their value systems, prior decisions, or other information they may have.
Answer
B. Cognitive dissonance
12
In which type of barriers, does premature evaluation fall ?
Answer
B. Psychological barrier
13
In communication, adequacy is concerned with
Answer
A. Coverage and quantity
14
In determining an eļ¬ective communication strategy, managers must consider i. The speciļ¬c content of the message. ii. The message's channel. iii. The physical environment in which it occurs. iv. The time the communication occurs.
Answer
D. All of the above
15
Communication performs the ______________ by relating various components of the organization and maintaining equilibrium among them.
Answer
D. Integrative function
16
Which one of the following is not an element of communication process ?
Answer
D. Measurement
17
______________ is a type of semantic barrier in communication.
Answer
D. Faulty translations
18
________________ is the study of nonlinguistic bodily movements, such as gestures, facial expressions etc.
Answer
A. Kinesics
19
Nonverbal communication performs following function i. Complementing ii. Accenting iii. Contradicting iv. Repeating
Answer
D. All of the above
20
What causes rumors in organization ?
Answer
A. Ambiguity x interest
21
An asset shall be classiļ¬ed as current when it satisļ¬es any of the following criteria i. It is expected to be realized in or is intended for sale or consumption in, the company's normal operating cycle. ii. It is not held primarily for the purpose of being traded. iii. It is expected to be realized within twelve months after the reporting date. Of the statements
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
22
Which of the following accounting standards deals with the impairment of Assets ?
Answer
D. AS 28
23
Consider the following statements i. According to AS1 revenues and costs are accrued, that is recognized as they are earned or incurred and recorded in the ļ¬nancial statements of the periods to which they relate. ii. Section 128 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013 makes it mandatory for companies to maintain accounts on accrual basis only. Of the statements :
Answer
C. (i) and (ii) are correct
24
According to accounting standards, an accounting policy can be changed if the change is required
Answer
D. All of the above
25
Which of the following ļ¬nancial statements portrays value of economic resources controlled by an enterprise ?
Answer
B. Balance Sheet
26
______________ is deļ¬ned as residual interest in the assets of an enterprise after deducting all its liabilities.
Answer
C. Equity
27
Which of the following accounting standard deals with depreciation accounting ?
Answer
B. AS6
28
According to sub Section (1) of Section 63, a company may issue fully paid up bonus shares to its members, in any manner whatsoever, out of
Answer
D. All of the above
29
Under _____________ measurement basis, assets are valued at the amount of cash or cash equivalents that would be needed to purchase the same or an equivalent asset at present.
Answer
A. Current cost
30
Which of the following accounting standards deals with the disclosure of accounting policies ?
Answer
A. AS 1
31
Bills payable on 01-01-2023 Rs. 3,00,000 Creditors on 01-01-2023 Rs. 2,50,000 Bills payable on 31-12-2023 Rs. 3,50,000 Creditors on 31-12-2023 Rs. 3,00,000 Credit purchase for the year Rs. 50,00,000 Credit sales for the year Rs. 60,00,000 What is the creditor's turnover ratio ?
Answer
A. 8.3 times
32
Equity share capital (Rs. 20 each) 50,00,000 Reserves and surplus 5,00,000 Secured loan at 15% 25,00,000 Unsecured loan at 12.5% 10,00,000 Fixed assets 30,00,000 Investments 5,00,000 Operating proļ¬t 25,00,000 Income tax rate 50% Market price per share Rs. 50 What is the P/E ratio ?
Answer
A. 12.5
33
From the following data, calculate the Earnings per share : Net proļ¬t before tax Rs. 4,00,000 Tax at 40% of net proļ¬t 5% preference shares of Rs. 100 each Rs. 1,00,000 Equity shares Rs. 4,00,000, Face value Rs. 10 Market price per share Rs. 150
Answer
B. 5.8
34
Which of the following is not a liquidity ratio ?
Answer
B. Proprietary ratio
35
Consider the following statements about equity ratio which of the following statements are correct ? i. The share holder's equity is equity share capital, reserves and surplus (excluding ļ¬ctitious assets). ii. This ratio indicates proportion of owners fund to total fund invested in the business.
Answer
C. (i) and (ii) are correct
36
Which of the following is a liquidity ratio ?
Answer
C. Net working capital ratio
37
The following information of a company is given Current ratio 2.5 : 1 Acid test ratio 1.5 : 1 Current liabilities 50,000 Fixed assets 20,00,000 What will be the value of inventory ?
Answer
B. 50,000
38
If inventory turnover ratio is 5 times and average stock at cost is Rs. 75,000. Equity share capital Rs. 40,00,000. What is the cost of goods sold ?
Answer
C. 3,75,000
39
Given : Cash Rs. 10,000 Bills receivables Rs. 5,000 Debtors Rs. 25,000 Stock Rs. 20,000 Creditors Rs. 30,000 Cost of sales Rs. 1,50,000 Building Rs. 40,00,000 What is the working capital turnover ratio ?
Answer
A. 5 times
40
The net proļ¬t (after tax) of a ļ¬rm is Rs. 75,000 and its ļ¬xed interest charges on long term borrowings are Rs. 10,000. The rate of income tax is 50%. What will be the interest coverage ratio ?
Answer
C. 16 times
41
Two concepts that provide foundation for Lean Operations
Answer
A. JIT and TPS
42
Steps followed in production planning and control functions
Answer
A. Routing, Loading, Scheduling, Dispatching, Expanding
43
Factor aļ¬ecting capacity planning
Answer
A. Existing and future manpower
44
Gantt Chart is a principal tool used for
Answer
B. Product scheduling
45
BIS stands for
Answer
B. Bureau of Indian Standards
46
The ļ¬ve P's in Production/Operations Management are
Answer
B. Product, Plant, Processes, Programmes, People
47
Which does not come under TQM tools ?
Answer
B. Gantt Chart
48
A family of environmental management standards developed by the International Organization for Standardisation (ISO) volume
Answer
C. ISO 14000
49
Which issue is not related to Talent Management ?
Answer
C. Worker Conļ¬icts
50
A management strategy that minimizes inventory and increases eļ¬ciency
Answer
A. JIT
51
Supply Chain risk includes
Answer
D. All of the above
52
Honda and Nissan are moving more manufacturing out of Japan as the exchange rate of Yen makes Japanese-made autos expensive. The risk reduction tactic used is
Answer
C. Economic
53
Variable not considered for supplier evaluation
Answer
B. Documentation
54
Planning and calculating raw material requirement are done in
Answer
A. MRP I
55
Most widely used pull inventory model
Answer
C. JIT and KANBAN
56
Cost related to overtime, training, layoļ¬ are included in
Answer
D. Capacity associated cost
57
Which is the conversion process in which successive units of output undergo the same sequence of operation, using specialised equipment usually positioned along a product line ?
Answer
A. Flow shop
58
Which of the following does not belong to ļ¬xed path equipment in material handling ?
Answer
C. Hand stacks
59
Eļ¬ciency of output and input factors of an enterprise is termed as
Answer
B. Productivity
60
Basic approach to inventory control
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
61
Document issued by a shipping company or its agent acknowledging the receipt of goods mentioned in the bill for shipment on board of the vessel is known as
Answer
C. Bill of lading
62
What is concerned with maintaining materials at the optimum level keeping in view the operational requirements and ļ¬nancial resources ?
Answer
C. Inventory control
63
ROI stands for
Answer
B. Return on Investment
64
Document prepared on receipt of material stores is
Answer
B. GRN
65
Document which contains a precise description of goods is known as
Answer
C. Invoice
66
Which of the following is not true of a letter of credit ?
Answer
D. Bank agrees to honour a draft drawn on the importer
67
Important shipping document necessary and useful in export import transaction.
Answer
A. Letter of credit
68
Physical movement of goods out of a country in a legal manner is
Answer
A. Export
69
Which is an example of intellectual property ?
Answer
B. Trademark
70
BOP means balance of receipts and payments of
Answer
C. Foreign exchange by a country
71
Material issues are always valued at the highest price of the receipts
Answer
C. HIFO
72
Last alternative to launch marketing strategies by challengers.
Answer
B. Guerilla attack
73
Last stage in product life cycle is
Answer
C. Decline stage
74
Safety stock level is also known as
Answer
B. Minimum stock level
75
Stock veriļ¬cation is done at the end of an accounting year in
Answer
B. Periodic inventory system
76
Loss which does not have any saleable value is
Answer
A. Wastage
77
Estimate or prediction as to what will happen in future which is uncertain is
Answer
B. Forecast
78
Zero based budgeting was introduced by
Answer
B. Jimmy Carter
79
When prices ļ¬uctuate widely, the method that will smooth out the eļ¬ect of ļ¬uctuation is
Answer
B. Weighted Average Method
80
Under FSN system of inventory control, inventory is classiļ¬ed on the basis of
Answer
B. Frequency of usage of items of inventory
81
What is a key factor in maintaining good customer relations in a store ?
Answer
C. Excellent customer service
82
What does the acronym SKU stand for in retail ?
Answer
A. Stock Keeping Unit
83
Which inventory system involves continuous tracking of inventory levels ?
Answer
C. Perpetual inventory system
84
What is the purpose of a planogram ?
Answer
C. To map out product placement on shelves
85
In which type of store layout are products grouped by category to facilitate comparison shopping ?
Answer
C. Boutique layout
86
What is the primary consideration when choosing a store location ?
Answer
B. Customer traļ¬c ļ¬ow
87
What type of store is known for oļ¬ering a wide selection of products within a speciļ¬c category, often with a focus on high-end or niche items ?
Answer
B. Specialty store
88
Which type of store is generally smaller in size, located in residential areas, and provides quick shopping for everyday items like snacks, beverages, and toiletries ?
Answer
A. Convenience store
89
What is 'Lead Time' in inventory management ?
Answer
C. The time between ordering and receiving goods
90
In storekeeping, what does 'EOQ' stand for ?
Answer
A. Economic Order Quantity
91
What is a 'bin card' used for in storekeeping ?
Answer
B. Recording the movement of materials in and out of a speciļ¬c bin
92
The process of ensuring that the right quality and quantity of materials are stored is called
Answer
C. Inventory management
93
Which document is used to record the receipt of goods in storekeeping ?
Answer
C. Goods Received Note (GRN)
94
What technology is commonly used to streamline the stock veriļ¬cation process ?
Answer
A. RFID (Radio Frequency Identiļ¬cation)
95
During stock veriļ¬cation, what is the purpose of a cycle count ?
Answer
B. To count a subset of inventory items on a regular basis
96
Which of the following is an indicator of eļ¬ective stock veriļ¬cation processes ?
Answer
C. Accurate inventory records
97
In which type of layout are workstations grouped by the types of operations they perform ?
Answer
A. Process layout
98
Which type of layout arranges workstation in a sequence that follows the ļ¬ow of materials or operations ?
Answer
C. Product layout
99
Which tool is useful for minimizing the risk of stockouts ?
Answer
B. Safety stock
100
What is the main advantage of using barcode systems in inventory management ?
Answer
A. Real-time tracking of inventory
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.