| Post Name | Godown Manager Part I |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala State Co Operative Consumers Federation Ltd |
| Question Paper Code | 132/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 213/2024 |
| Date of Test | 12 November 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
It is a system of economic organisation where business and industries are organised and carried on for proļ¬t by private organisation with a minimum government interference.
Answer
B. Capitalism
2
Distinction of dividend takes place in proportion to share capital in case of
Answer
A. Joint Stock Company
3
The following are the distinct features of Co-operative Organisation: (i) Voluntary Membership, Democratic Management, Service Motive (ii) Planning economy, Balanced economic growth, Social ownership of members (iii) Consumers co-operative society, Credit co-operative society, Farmers co- operative society
Answer
C. Only (i)
4
It is a concept of society which gives equal rights and opportunities of all individuals without any malpractices and discrimination
Answer
C. Co-operative Common Wealth
5
Which of the following statement is correct about Partnership? (i) Voluntary membership between the organisers. (ii) It is the result of the agreement between 2 or more persons. The agreement may be written, oral or understanding. (iii) High rate of capital formulation.
Answer
C. Only (ii)
6
Which of the following is/are most appropriate? Rochdale Principles (1 stage) includes the following (i) Democratic Management (ii) Open Membership (iii) Unlimited interest on share capital (iv) Cash Trading
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
7
Reformulation of Principles in First stage, The International Co-operative Alliance appointed a sub-committee in the year ________.
Answer
D. 1934
8
Which of the following is/are correct? The Principles of ICA 1995 includes the following: (i) Voluntary and open membership (ii) Member's Economic Participation (iii) Democratic Member Control (iv) Autonomy and Independence
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
9
How many Principles of Cooperation revised by ICA in 1995?
Answer
A. 7
10
Which of the following is correct in connection with Rochdale's of co- operative system?
Answer
B. Consumers
11
The Kerala Cooperatives Agricultural and Rural Development Bank Ltd. was established in the year _________.
Answer
A. 1956
12
The Kerala State Marketing Federation Ltd. known as MARKETFED became an apex body in the year ________.
Answer
B. 1960
13
MILMA was formed in the year ________.
Answer
C. 1980
14
The Kerala State Cooperatives Consumers Federation Ltd. was registered as apex body in the year _________.
Answer
D. 1965
15
The Kerala State Cooperative Housing Federation Ltd. is also known as ________.
Answer
A. HOUSEFED
16
SURABHI was established in the year _________.
Answer
B. 1964
17
CAPEX was started in the year ________.
Answer
C. 1984
18
Who is the President of the General Council of the National Co- operative Development Corporation?
Answer
B. Minister of Co-operation
19
National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) is registered under
Answer
A. Multi State Co-operative Societies Act
20
Which of the following institution is known as the 'Intellectual Nerve Center' co-operative movement?
Answer
C. Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of Co-operative Management
21
The agricultural credit function of RBI was transferred to
Answer
D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
22
Who is the founder and ļ¬rst chairman of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)?
Answer
A. Dr. Varghese Kurian
23
The ultimate appointing authority for a Co-operative Society's statutory auditor is
Answer
D. The Registrar of Co-operative Societies
24
Before dividend declaration the audit of a Co-operative Society conļ¬rm the compulsory transfer of net proļ¬t to which speciļ¬c fund?
Answer
C. Reserve Fund
25
The statutory audit of a Co-operative Bank should be conducted in compliance with the directions of which regulatory body
Answer
C. RBI
26
Most important register to check at the time of mechanical veriļ¬cation of a credit co-operative society
Answer
A. Member's Ledger
27
The prime duty of the auditor of Co-operative Society
Answer
B. Verify the assets and liabilities
28
An audit verifying that expenditures bring genuine beneļ¬t to the members and that the management has acted prudently
Answer
A. Propriety Audit
29
In cooperative management, the challenge of balancing autonomy at the unit level with coordination at a higher level is most acute in which type of structure?
Answer
B. Federal cooperative
30
Management complexity increases when a cooperative transforms from a multipurpose model to a multifunctional model because it begins to integrate diverse and interdependent activities across sectors. Choose the correct answer:
Answer
A. The statement is True, because multifunctional cooperatives handle multiple types of activities requiring coordination across economic functions.
31
Assertion (A) : Ethical dimensions in cooperative management focus on fairness, transparency and adherence to cooperative values rather than solely on proļ¬tability. Reason (R) : This is because a cooperative organization is guided by social and moral obligations towards its members and the community, not just by economic objectives. Codes:
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
32
A cooperative operating in a large geographical area is more likely to face managerial challenges related to:
Answer
D. Diversity of interests and diļ¬culty in member participation
33
Which of the following statements about greenhouse cooperatives is correct?
Answer
B. Greenhouse cooperatives grow organically from grassroots level with minimal external intervention.
34
Which issue most directly concerns the enterprise dimension of cooperative evaluation?
Answer
B. Proļ¬tability, eļ¬ciency and resource utilization
35
Filing of a petition or representation by the aggrieved, before a higher authority against the order of an authority at the lower level.
Answer
C. appeal
36
Which is considered as a legal punishment such as imprisonment or a ļ¬ne for the violation of the provision of an Act?
Answer
A. Penalty
37
Which is considered as the ļ¬nding or decision of an arbitrator or a person deciding a dispute?
Answer
B. award
38
The headquarters of "The Kerala Co-operative Tribunal"
Answer
D. Thiruvananthapuram
39
Which among the following are the powers of a co-operative tribunal?
Answer
D. All of the above
40
Which of the following is not a reserve kept by the co-operative societies?
Answer
C. Security Premium Reserve
41
The fund established by an apex society from the amount received from government for the purchase of shares is called _________.
Answer
A. Principal State Partnership Fund
42
State partnership or partnership of state in the share capital of co- operative society is recommended by which of the following committee?
Answer
B. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
43
Which of the following statements is true? (i) The government may subscribe directly to the share of a society with limited liability. (ii) The sources of funds of co-operative societies include own fund. (iii) At the time of liquidation of the apex society, the amount in the credit of Principal State Partnership Fund shall be paid to the government. (iv) The government may advance money to the society for the purchase of shares in other societies with limited liability.
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
44
Which of the following sections of the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act, 1969 says about Principal State Partnership Fund?
Answer
C. Section 44
45
Central Committee for Cooperative Training was formed in 1953 by
Answer
A. RBI and Government of India
46
The principle of one man one vote as introduced in which Act?
Answer
A. Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
47
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Kerala Cooperative Societies Act, 1969?
Answer
B. Open membership
48
Identify the true statement related to Cooperative Societies Act 1904?
Answer
C. It permitted only the registration of primary credit societies.
49
Which of the following was a feature of the Cooperative Societies Act, 1912?
Answer
B. Limited liability of members
50
The maximum rate of dividend on share capital prescribed by Kerala Cooperative Societies Act, 1969?
Answer
D. 25%
51
Which of the following is a primary function of a commercial bank?
Answer
B. Accepting deposits
52
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was nationalised in which year?
Answer
C. 1949
53
The Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) is primarily introduced to:
Answer
B. Encourage savings among the economically weaker sections
54
When the RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMO), it involves:
Answer
A. Buying and selling of government securities in the open market
55
In credit creation, when banks lend money, it leads to:
Answer
C. Multiple expansion of deposits
56
The RBI acts as a banker to the Government by performing which of the following functions?
Answer
C. Managing public debt and issuing new loans
57
In the process of credit contraction, which of the following actions primarily leads to a decrease in money supply?
Answer
B. Withdrawal of cash from the banking system
58
Which of the following best explains Moral Suasion as a qualitative method of credit control?
Answer
B. Persuading commercial banks to follow central bank directives through moral appeal rather than legal force
59
What was the primary aim of establishing the National Credit Council (NCC) in 1968?
Answer
C. To coordinate the activities of commercial banks and ensure adequate credit ļ¬ow to key sectors
60
The main objective of the Lead Bank Scheme introduced in 1969?
Answer
C. To allocate speciļ¬c districts to each public sector bank for intensive banking development
61
Which of the following statements is true about Diļ¬erential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme to promote ļ¬nancial inclusion?
Answer
A. By providing loans at a lower interest rate to priority sector borrowers and aiming to reduce the burden of high interest rates on poor borrowers.
62
Current number of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India
Answer
D. 28
63
The minimum capital requirement for Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India
Answer
B. Rs. 200 crore
64
Which of the following is a key initiative of NABARD for ļ¬nancial inclusion?
Answer
D. Microļ¬nance programme
65
The primary recommendation of the Narasimham Committee (1991) regarding the banking sector in India and how did it aim to improve the eļ¬ciency of banks?
Answer
B. To introduce prudential norms and capital adequacy requirements to improve the ļ¬nancial stability of banks.
66
Which of the following is a beneļ¬t of the Business Correspondent (BC) model for ļ¬nancial inclusion?
Answer
C. It provides banking services to the rural population through low-cost and eļ¬cient channels.
67
Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which of the following businesses is prohibited for a banking company?
Answer
C. Trading in goods for proļ¬t
68
Which of the following correctly deļ¬nes Demand and Time Liabilities (DTL)?
Answer
C. Liabilities payable on demand and after a certain period
69
The restriction on voting rights of shareholders in a banking company is imposed to:
Answer
A. Prevent monopolization of control in management
70
The power of inspection of banking companies under the Banking Regulation Act is primarily vested in:
Answer
B. Reserve Bank of India
71
The relationship between banker and customer in respect of a deposit account is primarily that of:
Answer
C. Debtor and Creditor
72
A Garnishee Order is issued to a bank to:
Answer
B. Freeze the customer's account for recovery of debt
73
The right of set-oļ¬ allows a banker to:
Answer
B. Adjust a customer's debit balance in one account with the credit balance in another account
74
Under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, the Ombudsman can entertain complaints relating to:
Answer
B. Non-adherence to fair banking practices
75
Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
Answer
D. Postal Order
76
Which of the following is not a type of endorsement?
Answer
C. Reverse endorsement
77
The purpose of crossing a cheque is to _______.
Answer
B. Make it payable only through a bank
78
In a contract of guarantee, there are _________ parties.
Answer
B. Three
79
The apex institution for agricultural and rural development in India is ________.
Answer
A. NABARD
80
Which of the following is not included in the priority sector?
Answer
C. Real Estate Development
81
The Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in the year ________.
Answer
A. 1998
82
NABARD's headquarters is located at _________.
Answer
A. Mumbai
83
Which of the following payment systems in India enables instant interbank fund transfer available 24Ć7?
Answer
C. IMPS
84
Which international payment system enables cross-border transactions?
Answer
A. SWIFT
85
What is the purpose of a digital wallet?
Answer
B. To store payment cards
86
What is the purpose of a digital signature certiļ¬cate?
Answer
B. To verify identity
87
Which scheme provides pension beneļ¬ts to subscribers?
Answer
C. Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
88
Which of the following is a type of capital included in Tier 1 capital?
Answer
A. Paid-up capital
89
What is the purpose of the CAMELS rating system?
Answer
C. To evaluate overall health and stability
90
What is the beneļ¬t of the Atal Pension Yojana (APY)?
Answer
A. Guaranteed pension
91
Which HTML attribute is used to display a "tooltip" when the mouse hovers over an element?
Answer
A. title
92
Select the valid URL from below:
Answer
A. https://user:pass@subdomain.example.com:443/index.html
93
Which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000, speciļ¬cally deals with the power of the government to intercept, monitor or decrypt information in the interest of national security, public order and sovereignty of India?
Answer
C. Section 69
94
What is the main diļ¬erence between a hub and a switch?
Answer
B. Hub forwards data to all devices, switch sends data only to the target device
95
If you enter =B1*C$1 into cell B2 in Microsoft Excel and then copy the formula to cell C3, then what will be the formula in cell C3?
Answer
D. =C2*D$1
96
Which of the following accurately describes the role of the Master Boot Record (MBR) in a traditional BIOS-based system?
Answer
C. It contains the ļ¬rst-stage bootloader and partition table
97
Which of the following best describes "cyber extortion"?
Answer
C. Threatening to release or block data unless a payment is made
98
In the context of cybercrime, what does DDoS stand for?
Answer
A. Distributed Denial of Service
99
What part of the Operating System manages CPU scheduling?
Answer
B. Kernel
100
Which output device directly uses electrostatic charges to produce physical output?
Answer
B. Laser printer
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