| Post Name | Head Master (High School) / Assistant Educational Officer (SR for ST Only) - General Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 083/2022/OL |
| Category Code | 268/2021 |
| Date of Test | 11 October 2022 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Vaikom Satyagraha ? i) Eminent leaders like Swami Sradhananda and Mrs. Srinivasa Iyengar visited Vaikom. ii) The Akalis set up a free feeding house for the volunteers. iii) A band of volunteers under E. V. Ramaswami Naicker went from Madurai to Vaikom.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
2
Which of the following is true about Pandit K. P. Karuppan ?
Answer
A. Assistant protector of depressed classes in Cochin State
3
Who was the editor of the news paper 'Gajakesari' ?
Answer
C. Moorkoth Kumaran
4
Which of the following autonomous institutes is under the control of the ministry of environment, forest and climate change, Govt. of India ? i) Indian council of Forest Research and Education. ii) Wildlife Institute of India. iii) Salim Ali Center for ornithology and Natural History.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
5
Consider the following statements about the parliamentary term 'Calling Attention'. i) A procedure whereby a member calls the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance. ii) The minister makes a brief statement there on and there after the members seek clarification iii) A resolution in pursuance of a provision in the constitution or an Act of parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
B. i and ii only
6
Find out the correct pairs, from the following based on 'Models of Teaching' i) Jurisprudential inquiry - Bill Gordon ii) Inquiry training - Richard Suchman iii) Scientific inquiry - Pressly iv) Inductive thinking - Hilda Taba
Answer
C. ii and iv are correct
7
Which of the following can't be considered as a technique of evaluation in the classroom ?
Answer
B. Action research
8
'This quality of a test item will be evident, if it is answered correctly by more high - achievers than low-achievers'. Find out the quality of the test item mentioned here.
Answer
D. Discriminating power
9
'By this process, a teacher can design effective instructional strategies, teaching learning materials, evaluation techniques remediation etc.' In this statement, the term 'process' means
Answer
A. Pedegogic analysis
10
Identify the odd one from the following which can't be included in the 'maxims of teaching'.
Answer
D. From rational to empirical
11
What happens when light travels from a rarer to a denser medium ? i) Speed of the light decreases. ii) Wavelength of the light decreases. iii) Colour of the light changes.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
12
Which is true about a wavefront ? i) A ray represents the direction of propagation of wavefront. ii) Wavefront is the locus of all those particles that are vibrating at the same phase at any instant. iii) Shape of the wavefront differs with respect to the source of light.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
13
What happens when the speed of a moving body is doubled ? i) Acceleration gets doubled ii) Momentum is doubled iii) Kinetic energy becomes 4 times increased.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
14
A wire of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 1/10000 m² is stretched by a load of 100 kg. The wire is stretched by 0.1 cm. Which statements are true? (Given g = 10 m/s²): i) Stress = 10⁷ N/m²; ii) Strain = 0.5 × 10⁻³; iii) Young's modulus = 2 × 10¹⁰ N/m²
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
15
100 calories of heat is added to 10 grams of water, find the rise in the temperature of water. Given specific heat of water = 1 cal/g/°C i) Given data is insufficient ii) 30°C iii) 10°C
Answer
D. None of the above
16
There is a change in temperature accompanying expansion of a gas without production of work or transfer of heat. Which of the following propositions related to the given statement is true ? i) This is called Joule-Thomson effect. ii) This process is used in liquefying gases. iii) Hydrogen and helium will obey this at room temperature
Answer
A. Only i and ii
17
Which of the following propositions related to the Doppler Effect is true ? i) as one approaches a blowing horn, the perceived pitch is higher until the horn is reached. ii) light from a distant star, observed from the Earth, shifts toward the red end of the spectrum if the Earth and star are receding from each other. iii) Doppler effect will only take place when the velocity of the source wave is less than the velocity of the wave.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
18
A simple harmonic motion is represented by x = 10sin (20t + 0.5). Which among the following propositions are true ? (displacement is measured in metres and time in second). i) amplitude = 10 m ii) angular frequency = 10 rad per second iii) frequency = 10/2 Π
Answer
A. Only i
19
Which of the following statements are true about viscosity ? i) It is the opposing force between moving fluid layers. ii) Viscosity of liquids increase as temperature increases. iii) Viscosity of gases increase as temperature increases.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
20
What is true about a reflecting telescope ? i) It can examine visible light only. ii) It has lesser aberrations than refracting telescope. iii) It has only a single mirror.
Answer
B. Only ii
21
What is the proportionality of energy of a photon of a light to its frequency and wavelength ?
Answer
B. Directly, Inversely
22
Nylon threads are made of
Answer
B. Polyamide polymer
23
Which of the following is a permanent electron displacement effect ?
Answer
A. Inductive
24
The relative stabilization of the 𝑑 , 𝑝 , 𝑑 and 𝑝 configurations is in the order. 5 10
Answer
A. 𝑑 < 𝑝 3< 𝑑 < 𝑝 6 10 5
25
Chiral molecules which are non-super-imposable mirror images of each other are called
Answer
C. Enantiomers
26
Which one of these poly nuclear carbonyls does not obey EAN rule ?
Answer
D. 𝐶𝑜4 �𝐶𝑂� 12
27
Calculate Zeff for the outermost electron of Helium
Answer
C. 1.70
28
Which of the following compounds can exhibit geometrical isomerism ?
Answer
D. 2-Hexene
29
Purification of aluminium by electrolytic refining is
Answer
C. Hoope's process
30
Among the given options, the element having the highest number of unpaired electrons in the ground state is
Answer
D. Cr
31
Bacteria are kept in the Plant Kingdom because
Answer
B. Have a rigid cell wall outside the Plasma membrane
32
The statement which is incorrect about Fungi.
Answer
B. All are Filamentous
33
In Bryophyte the sporophytic phase is
Answer
A. Diploid and short living
34
The type of Embryo in which the apical pole of the embryo is directed outwards to the neck of the archegonium
Answer
C. Exoscopic embryo
35
Which of the following statement indicates the characteristics of Gymnosperms ? 1. Most of the living gymnosperms are evergreen trees or shrubs with xerophytic adaptations. 2. All Gymnosperms are insect Pollinated. 3. In Gymnosperms there is tendency for polyembryony. 4. There is no distinct alternation between sporophytic and gametophytic generation.
Answer
C. 1 and 3
36
A clear, constricted area within the primary constriction of a chromosome.
Answer
C. Centromere
37
During crossing over Chiasma formation takes place during
Answer
A. Pachytene stage
38
Which evolutionary theory explains about the "use and disuse theory" ?
Answer
D. Lamarck's theory
39
Exudation of the water from plants in the form of liquid is known as
Answer
C. Guttation
40
Free living aerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria is
Answer
D. Chlorobium
41
Which of the following statements are related with glomerular filtrate ? i) Glomerular filtrate contains all the constituents of blood ii) Glomerular filtrate contains all the constituents of blood except for the large plasma proteins and the blood cells iii) Glomerular filtrate contains all the constituents of blood except for the blood cells iv) Glomerular filtrate is totally different from the constituents of blood
Answer
D. Only ii
42
Sarcomere is the portion of myofibril that lies between
Answer
C. Two successive Z discs
43
How many enzymes are transcribed by the structural genes of lac operon ?
Answer
B. Three
44
The inactive precursors of enzymes are called as
Answer
D. Zymogens
45
Which organisms exhibit radial holoblastic cleavage ?
Answer
C. Echinoderms
46
The potency of a stem cell to originate into different cells of all three germ layers is termed as
Answer
C. Pluripotency
47
The enzymatic content of primary lysosome is synthesized by
Answer
B. Ribosomes
48
The chromosomal disorder caused by two or more X chromosomes in a male is called as
Answer
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
49
Which among the following is an innate viral resistant protein ?
Answer
B. Interferons
50
Which of the following pair is mismatched ? i) Meningitis - Haemophilus influenza ii) Tetanus - Yersinia pestis iii) Sleeping sickness - Trypanosoma brucei iv) Amoebic meningoencephalitis - Naegleria fowleri
Answer
B. ii only
51
The fourth and last Hindu Dynasty of Vijayanagara Empire
Answer
C. Aravidu Dynasty
52
Which Veda is popular as Veda of melodies and chants ?
Answer
B. Samaveda
53
Which place of worship is related with the term : "Kunavayir Kottam"
Answer
D. Jain Vihara
54
From the below lists Sankaracharya popularised which tenet
Answer
A. Advaitha Vedanta
55
The chief occupation of Palai in Sangam Age
Answer
C. Robbery
56
Who among the following is considered as the father of scientific socialism ?
Answer
C. Karl Marx
57
Which of the following function is not the concern of the Local Governments ?
Answer
D. Maintenance of the public order
58
Term of office of the United Nations Secretary General
Answer
C. 5 years
59
The headquarter of World Trade Organization
Answer
B. Geneva
60
The concept of Natural Liberty is associated with
Answer
D. Rousseau
61
Which among the following is the most densely populated country in the World ?
Answer
D. Monaco
62
Which among the following is not a tributary of the river Godavari ?
Answer
B. The Manjra
63
The largest man-made wetland in India is
Answer
B. Salt Pans of Bhavnagar
64
In Kerala, Black Soil is found in
Answer
C. Palakkad
65
The least urbanised district in Kerala is
Answer
A. Wayanad
66
GST in India will be characterised by which of the following features ? Choose the correct answer from the statements given below : i) There will be a dual GST with centre and the state. ii) It would be a destination based tax as against the origin based tax. iii) It would apply to all goods and services excluding alcohol for human consumption.
Answer
B. All the above are correct
67
Mention the crop where Green Revolution is the most successful one
Answer
B. Wheat and Rice
68
Which of the following statement is/are correct about IAY (Indira Awas Yojana) ? i) The IAY was started in 1985-86 as a sub plan of RLEGP. ii) In 1989-90, after merging the RLEGP with JRY, IAY also became a part of JRY. iii) Since January - 1, 1996, IAY was again separated from JRY.
Answer
D. All the above i, ii and iii are true
69
As per 'ASSOCHAM' study report, which of the following state stands at the lowest rank among 'BIMARU' states ?
Answer
D. Uttar Pradesh
70
Which of the following statement is/are correct about NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index, 2020-21 ? i) Kerala retained its rank as the top state with a score of 75. ii) Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh took the second spot. iii) Bihar, Jharkhand and Assam were the worst performing states in 2020-21 SDG India Index.
Answer
C. All the above i, ii are iii are true
71
For a, b ∈ ℤ, define a relation a R b if ab ≥ 0; then the relation R is
Answer
A. Symmetric, reflexive and transitive
72
If a set X has 2 elements, find the number of asymmetric relations on X.
Answer
B. 3
73
Two sets A and B are defined as A = {(x, y) | y = eˣ, x ∈ ℝ} and B = {(x, y) | y = x, x ∈ ℝ}. Then
Answer
C. A ∩ B = φ
74
Out of 32 teachers in a school, 30 teach English and 17 teach Mathematics. What is the number of teachers who teach both English and Mathematics ?
Answer
C. 15
75
If x∈ (Π, 2Π ) and then a is equal to
Answer
A. 𝜋 4
76
The length of tangent drawn from the point (1, 4) to the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 – 2x + 8y = 23 is
Answer
B. √24
77
The integral �� 𝑥 3𝑦 2𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 over the circle C : 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ≤ 𝑎 2 is �
Answer
D. 0
78
The integral ��𝑥 + 𝑦 �𝑑𝑦 where c is the arc of the parabola 𝑦 = 4𝑎𝑥 between (0, 0) and (a, 2a) is � 3
Answer
B. 46 𝑎 15
79
For what value of K, the function is continuous ?
Answer
D. 1 3
80
The area bounded by the curve 𝑥 2 = 𝑦 and 𝑦 2 = 𝑥 is given by
Answer
A. 1 3
81
With the help of Histogram, one can determine
Answer
C. Mode
82
What percentage of values is less than 7 decile ?
Answer
B. 70 percent
83
Mean deviation is minimum when deviations are taken from
Answer
B. Median
84
The variance of first 2n natural numbers is 2
Answer
D. 4𝑛 − 1 12
85
What is the probability of getting 53 sundays in a leap year ?
Answer
B. 2 7
86
A heterogeneous population is converted into a perfectly homogeneous population in respect of a characteristic. Then the most appropriate sampling method was
Answer
D. Stratified
87
Square of student't variable 𝑡 follows which distribution
Answer
C. F distribution
88
Large sample property of an estimator is
Answer
D. Consistency
89
Power of a test is related to
Answer
B. type II error
90
The distribution of sample variance is
Answer
A. Chi-square
91
What is the purpose of educational supervision ?
Answer
B. To develop a positive teaching-learning ambiance in the institution
92
Informal communication network within the organization is known as
Answer
C. Grapevine communication
93
Luther Gulick and Lyndall Urwiek coined POSDCORB which can be used as a systematic framework for administrative management. POSDCORB is an acronym which means
Answer
C. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting, budgeting
94
Techno-pedagogic competency is
Answer
A. competence for interweaving technology into teaching and learning process judiciously
95
Arrange chronologically i) SIET ii) NCERT iii) SIEMAT iv) DIET
Answer
D. ii, iv, i, iii
96
A school principal plans the targets of activities and programmes to be undertaken in the next five years in their Academic Master Plan. This is an example of
Answer
D. Perspective plan
97
Vision of General Education Kerala, Except
Answer
B. To submit the report to the Central Government after inspecting the supervision of District Educational Officers
98
All of the following theories explain individual reactions to a crisis event, except
Answer
C. Behaviour modification
99
Which among the following is most suited for assessment of social skills ?
Answer
D. Rubrics
100
Arrange chronologically a. Based mission started first english medium school at Malabar b. Mid-day meal programme of Travancore c. 'Kudipallikudom' at venganoor, Thiruvananthapuram d. Magna Carta of Education in Travancore
Answer
A. d, a, c, b
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