| Post Name | Higher Secondary School Teacher (Geology) |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Higher Secondary Education |
| Question Paper Code | 080/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 444/2025, 612/2025 |
| Date of Test | 5 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which geomorphic concept best explains landscapes that maintain a near-steady form despite continuous denudation ?
Answer
C. Dynamic equilibrium
2
Which river pattern is most associated with high sediment load and variable discharge ?
Answer
C. Braided
3
A drainage basin with high bifurcation ratio generally suggests
Answer
A. Structural disturbance or strong tectonic control
4
The Kerala coast is best known for which geomorphic setting
Answer
B. Backwaters and barrier-lagoon complexes
5
A densely populated ļ¬oodplain has high risk mainly because of
Answer
B. High vulnerability and exposure
6
Which factor has the strongest inļ¬uence on soil proļ¬le development ?
Answer
B. Climate, organisms, relief, parent material and time
7
Lateritization in Kerala is mainly controlled by
Answer
B. Intense tropical weathering and leaching
8
Which of the following symmetry elements is incompatible with translational periodicity in crystals ?
Answer
C. 5-fold axis
9
The diļ¬raction peak position in an XRD pattern is mainly controlled by :
Answer
C. Lattice spacing
10
Which physical property is most useful for distinguishing quartz from calcite megascopically ?
Answer
B. Cleavage
11
The complete solid solution between forsterite and fayalite is an example of
Answer
B. Isomorphism
12
A mineral showing a very large diļ¬erence between its maximum and minimum refractive indices exhibits noticeable changes in relief under the microscope. This optical eļ¬ect is known as
Answer
C. Twinkling
13
Quartz has a birefringence ( ) of 0.009. A quartz grain in thin section has a thickness of 0.056 mm. What interference colour is most likely to be observed under crossed polars ?
Answer
B. Red with a purplish cast
14
A uniaxial mineral has nĻ = 1.54 and nĪµ = 1.56. The mineral is
Answer
B. Optically positive
15
Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with its optical property ?
Answer
C. Pyroxene - Nearly orthogonal cleavage
16
The birefringence of a uniaxial mineral having refractive indices of 1.658 and 1.486 is
Answer
B. 0.172
17
Looking down the optic axis, the mineral has
Answer
D. Zero birefringence
18
In geochemical classiļ¬cation of elements some elements shows aļ¬nity for more than one group because distribution of elements depends on
Answer
D. All of the above
19
A radioactive isotope has 1024 atoms. How many atoms will remain after 4half-lives ?
Answer
B. 64
20
The carbon isotope fractionation factor at a given temperature between CO and diamond is 1.0115 and that between diamond and graphite is 1.0029. The value of the isotope fractionation factor of carbon between CO and graphite at this temperature will be CO.
Answer
A. 1.0144
21
The average vertical thermal gradient at the Earth's surface is about _____ C/km
Answer
A. 30 C
22
The branch of geology which deals with various aspects of rocks is
Answer
A. Petrology
23
Which of the following statement is TRUE with regards to textural feature development in igneous rocks ?
Answer
A. During slow cooling of magma, nucleation rate is slow and growth rate of crystal is high
24
Basalts are composed of the following minerals i. Olivine ii. Pyroxene iii. Quartz iv. Plagioclase Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Answer
B. i, ii and iv only
25
In which of the following sedimentary environment texturally mature but compositionally immmature sandstones may be found ?
Answer
C. Aeolian
26
Which of the following is an decreasing order of particle size ?
Answer
C. Conglomerate, sandstone, siltstone
27
The correct mineral sequence that describes prograde metamorphism in a calc-silicate rock.
Answer
A. Phlogopite Tremolite Diopside Scapolite Forsterite
28
The mineral coesite is expected to be stable in which of the folllowing metamorphic facies ?
Answer
C. Eclogite
29
Which major shear zone separates Trivandrum block from Madurai block in Kerala ?
Answer
C. The Achankovil Shear Zone
30
Clathrates are considered an important source for :
Answer
B. Methane
31
The evolution of Cephalopoda is characterised by a progressive change in suture pattern. Arrange in correct evolutionary order
Answer
B. Nautilitic Goniatitic Ceratitic Ammonitic
32
Nummulites are characteristic fossils of which of the following geological periods
Answer
B. Eocene
33
Which maceral group originates predominantly from spores, resins,and cuticular plant materials ?
Answer
A. Exinite
34
Select the correct option that shows the increasing order of copper (Cu) content in the following copper ore minerals : Chalcopyrite, Malachite, Cuprite, and Covellite
Answer
D. Chalcopyrite-Malachite-Covellite-Cuprite
35
The mineral columbite, an important source of niobium and tantalum, is typically found in which type of rock ?
Answer
B. Carbonatite
36
A cohesive, non-foliated and ļ¬ne-grained fault rock is termed as __________
Answer
C. Cataclasite
37
A geological map shows a sandstone bed dipping at 30 to the east. If the bed is 100 m thick (true thickness), what is the width of outcrop (map width) measured in the dip direction on ļ¬at ground ?
Answer
A. 200 m
38
Which of the following is the fundamental unit in the lithostratigraphy ?
Answer
C. Formation
39
Match the volcanic units in India (Column A) with their corresponding geological ages (Column B) (Column A) (Column B) A. Deccan Traps 1. Early Cretaceous B. Sylhet Traps 2. Late Cretaceous C. Malani Igneous Suite 3. Permian D. Panjal Traps 4. Neoproterozoic
Answer
A. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
40
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the geology of Kerala and Karnataka ? 1. The Southern Granulite Terrain mainly consists of high-grade schists, orthogneisses and charnockites 2. The Dharwar Craton in Karnataka is characterized by greenstone belts and hosts gold mineralization. 3. Laterite formation in Kerala is primariliy associated with arid climatic conditions. 4. The Shimoga Schist Belt is separated from the Bababudan and Western Ghats by basement tonalite-trondhjemite-gneiss (TTG)
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
41
Benioļ¬-Wadati zones are associated with
Answer
C. Subducion zones
42
Identify the INCORRECT statement from the following :
Answer
D. Gakkel Ridge is a fast-spreading ridge
43
The geophysical electrical method of exploration that operates on the fundamental principle that an ore body undergoing oxidation is a source of electric current
Answer
B. S P method
44
The associated elememts that are used to ļ¬nd the concentration of certain elements, which do not respond to chemical weathering and are poor in concentration, are know as :
Answer
C. Pathļ¬nder element
45
The plant which is known as 'Copper Plant' in geobotanical survey
Answer
B. Ocimum homblai
46
The equipment used in radioactive exploration methods, that detects the presence of electrons and protons produced by the collision of atoms with high velocity radioactive particles
Answer
D. G-M Counter
47
The exploratory method usually employed to test shallow, ļ¬at-lying bodies of mineralisation.
Answer
B. Pitting
48
Relatively expensive sampling method employed in the detailed exploration of prospective mineral belts.
Answer
C. Rock sampling
49
The drilling method used in geochemical sampling where good characterisation of bedrock is required
Answer
B. Air core
50
The process of ļ¬lling in the empty space with waste materials or sand, after the extraction of the ore body or coal seam.
Answer
C. Stowing
51
Vertical or inclined openings through which materials are transported to underground mine workings.
Answer
B. Shaft
52
The term used to denote the width of the entire mineralised zone.
Answer
C. Assay width
53
The mining method essentially employed for mining placer deposits.
Answer
B. Dredging
54
The term applied to small sized, irregular and unsystematic underground workings
Answer
C. Gophering
55
The method that is NOT related to coal mining
Answer
D. Top slicing
56
The type of crusher which is much like a coļ¬ee grinder in principle
Answer
B. Cone Crusher
57
In Darcy's Law (Q=KiA), hydraulic conductivity (K) depends on
Answer
A. Both the medium and the ļ¬uid
58
The speciļ¬c yield of an unconļ¬ned aquifer is always
Answer
C. Less than total porosity
59
A Piper trilinear diagram is used to
Answer
B. Classify groundwater by major cation and anion proportions
60
In the CooperJacob method, a steeper slope on the drawdown vs log(time) plot indicates
Answer
B. Lower transmissivity (T): steeper Īs means T = 2.303Q/(4ĻĪs) is smaller
61
If the fraeshwater table is 2 m above sea level, the GhybenHerzberg formula places the saltwater interface at
Answer
C. 80 m below sea level
62
In the Wentworth scale, the correct grainsize boundaries for Gravel/ Sand/Silt/Clay (in mm) are
Answer
B. >2/2 - 0.0625/0.0625 - 0.004/<0.004
63
Which two statements about Schlumberger VES are correct (i) Larger AB/2 spacing probes greater depth. (ii) An Htype curve ( 1> 2< 3) indicates a lowresistivity (saturated) middle layer. (iii) Apparent resistivity equals the true resistivity of the layer being probed. (iv) Wenner and Schlumberger conļ¬gurations always give identical apparent resistivity at the same electrode spacing.
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
The spatial resolution of a satellite sensor refers to
Answer
B. The smallest ground area the sensor can distinguish as s separate unit
65
In a standard False Colour Composite (FCC) for vegetation mapping, healthy vegetation appears red because
Answer
B. NIR Red channel; Red Green; Green Blue vegetation strongly reļ¬ects NIR
66
Stereoscopic parallax in overlapping aerial photographs is used to determine
Answer
C. Height and elevation of objects and terrain features
67
NDVI=(NIR - Red)/(NIR + Red). For bare rock with no vegetation, the expected NDVI value is closest to
Answer
C. 0.0 NIR and Red reļ¬ectances are approximately equal for bare surfaces, so the numerator is near zero
68
In SAR imagery, a radar shadow appears as a dark or black zone because
Answer
B. The radar beam cannot illuminate the lee side of an elevated feature, so no return signal is received
69
In a GIS vector polygon layer representing geological map units, which topology rule is mandatory ?
Answer
A. Polygons must not overlap, each spatial location belongs to only one geological unit
70
Which two statements about GIS are correct ? (i) Vector models are best suited like elevation. (ii) Raster data stores spatial information as a grid of cells, each holding an attribute value. (iii) Spatial overlay analysis integrates multiple thematic layers for geological investigations. (iv) GIS stores only locational data and cannot integrate attribute information like rock type.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
71
What does the term "feedback loop" signify in the context of assessment and evaluation
Answer
A. A continuous process of providing feedback throughout the learning period
72
What is the primary purpose of formative assessment in an evaluation system ?
Answer
B. Providing feedback during the learning process
73
How does the concept of "Inclusive Education" align with eļ¬ective teaching practices ? (i) By excluding students with diverse needs (ii) By accommodating and valuing the diversity of all students. (iii) By focusing solely on advanced learners.
Answer
B. only ii
74
What does the acronym "STEM" represent in the context of education ?
Answer
C. Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics
75
How does the concept of "Blooms Taxonomy" contribute to instructional design ? i. By promoting a single level of cognitive engagement ii. By categorizing cognitive skills into hierarchical levels iii. By emphasizing rote memorization.
Answer
B. Only ii
76
In a research context, what does reliability refer to ?
Answer
A. The consistency and stability of measurement
77
What is plagiarism in the context of research ethics ?
Answer
C. Unauthorized use of others work without proper attribution
78
What is the primary purpose of obtaining informed consent in research ?
Answer
C. To respect participants autonomy and rights
79
What is the initial step in the research process ?
Answer
D. Identifying the research problem
80
What characterizes a longitudinal research design ?
Answer
C. Data collected over an extended period from the same subjects
81
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the suspension of fundamental rights ? i. Parliament can suspend fundamental rights by passing a law with a two-third majority ii. During an emergency, the President, by order can suspend the enforcement of some fundamental rights iii. By the proclamation of emergency issued on the ground of war or external aggression, all fundamental rights are automatically suspended iv. Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended.
Answer
C. Only ii
82
Match the following Articles in the Constitution with suitable provisions. a. Article 124 i. Extension of jurisdiction of High Court to Union territories b. Article 136 ii. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court c. Article 230 iii. Constitution of Supreme Court d. Article 224 iv. Appointment of additional and acting judges in High Court by the President.
Answer
D. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
83
Assertion (A) : The Legislature of a state or High Court has no role in the removal of the Governor. Reason (R) : No Governor can be removed from the oļ¬ce till the completion of ļ¬ve year.
Answer
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
84
Which of the following features has been correctly listed about centre-state relations in India ? i. Constitution ensures equal representation of states in Rajya Sabha. ii. Legislative and executive powers are divided between Central Government and State Governments. iii. Union Parliament can make any law for implementing international treaties and agreements without the state's consent, even if the subjects are covered in the State List. iv. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution, supported by one-third of members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, then parliament can make laws on any subject in the State List
Answer
C. Only ii and iii
85
The Chairman and the members of the UPSC shall only be removed from oļ¬ce, on the ground of misbehaviour, by an order of
Answer
C. the President on the report of Supreme Court
86
Arrange the formation of following commissions in chronological order. i. National Human Rights Commission. ii. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights. iii. National Commission for Women. iv. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Answer
B. iii, i, iv, ii
87
How parliament can Amend a list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
Answer
D. The amendment Bill passed in both Houses of Parliament by two third majority of members present and voting and a majority of total membership. Ratiļ¬cation by not less than half of State Legislatures are also required
88
Which of the following statements about the duration of State Emergency is correct ? i. The proclamation, under Article 356, will cease to operate at the expiry of two months unless both houses of the Parliament have approved it before that period. ii. A proclamation issued under Article 356 can be in force normally for one year at a stretch. iii. Parliament can extend the period of State emergency beyond one year, if the Election Commission certiļ¬es that it is necessary on account of the diļ¬culties in holding the general elections to Legislative Assembly of the concerned state. iv. Parliament can extend the period of State Emergency beyond one years if a proclamation of emergency under Article 352 is in operation.
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
Originally Preamble was not considered as a part of constitution. But the Supreme Court held that it was a part of Constitution. The Supreme Court gave this verdict in which of the following case ?
Answer
A. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
90
Which of the following statement is/are not the objective of Right to Information Act ? i. to empower the citizens ii. to promote transparency and accountability in the working of government iii. to make our democracy work for the people in the real sense. iv. to have time bound redressal of grievances of citizen.
Answer
C. Only iv
91
Swami Vagbhatananda denounced caste barriers and idol worship and exhorted his followers to abjure such practices. He was the founder of
Answer
B. Atma Vidya Sangham
92
The ļ¬rst full ļ¬edged Malayalam work printed in the language using Malayalam types was
Answer
B. Samkshepa Vedartham
93
The famous Kerala reform leader K. Ayyappan is related with i. Popularised the idea of Misrabhojanam. ii. Promoted women education. iii. Encouraged Gender Equality. iv. Founded Sahodara Sangham.
Answer
D. All are correct
94
"Enlighten through education and strengthen by union" who said these words ?
Answer
B. Sri Narayana Guru
95
With regard to the incident Gandhiji said, "A miracle of modern times and a smriti which is the people's charter of spiritual emancipation".
Answer
B. Temple entry proclamation
96
Proclamation of Free primary education in 1817 is remarkable in the education sector. The proclamation was during the reign of
Answer
C. Gouri Parvathy Bhai
97
Nalappat Narayana Menon has immortalised himself in Malayalam poetry by his beautiful elegy
Answer
B. Kannunirtulli
98
As a part of the campaign for eradication of untouchability a Satyagraha was organised during the period of December-April 1948 and it evoked the willing participation of princes of Royal families of Cochin. Which Satyagraha was mentioned above ?
Answer
C. Paliyam Satyagraha
99
The news paper Swadesabhimani, was owned by
Answer
B. Abdul Khadir Maulavi
100
Royal proclamation of July 26, 1859 is related to
Answer
C. Shanar Agitation
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