| Post Name | Higher Secondary School Teacher (Home Science) |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Higher Secondary Education |
| Question Paper Code | 081/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 702/2025 |
| Date of Test | 5 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
________ bacterium is responsible for holes in cheese.
Answer
A. Propioni
2
D-Value (Decimal Reduction Time) refers to
Answer
B. Time required to kill 90% of a microbial population at a given temperature
3
___________ may form up to 90% of the ļ¬ora on the surface of carcasses stored even in chilling rooms.
Answer
B. Pseudomonas
4
Getatinisation temperature for starch is in the range of
Answer
D. 60-85 deg.
5
Tempeh is fermented by
Answer
D. Rhizopus sp
6
Obesity and related morbidities are traced to- _______ in processed foods consumed.
Answer
B. HFSS
7
The fungus causing ergotism is
Answer
C. Claviceps fusiformis
8
Critical Control Point (CCP) refers to
Answer
B. A step where hazards can be prevented or eliminated
9
Kesari dal consumption can cause
Answer
B. Lathyrism
10
Sorbic acid is used as a
Answer
A. Preservative
11
For low-income earners, which among the following house plan feature, provides both cost reduction and future expansion potential ?
Answer
C. Core house with the provision for incremental construction.
12
A hospital ward painted dark blue with minimal windows increased cooling costs by 30%. Which design principle was ignored ?
Answer
D. Impact of colour on energy eļ¬ciency and thermal comfort.
13
The __________ entrepreneur draws up the advise and services of experts and introduces changes that reļ¬ects a complete break up from the existing of things.
Answer
A. Cognitive
14
A college incubation centre provides oļ¬ce space, mentoring and seed funding to student start-ups. This is an example of
Answer
C. Business incubator
15
An entrepreneur installs freezers on boats, tanks and then adds predator ļ¬sh. The progression demonstrates
Answer
D. Entrepreneurial risk management through incremental innovation.
16
Which among the following drawings would be most needed to begin space planning in an existing building ?
Answer
A. Base plan
17
The most common shape of an indiļ¬erent curve is
Answer
D. Convex of the origin
18
The relation between the consumers optimal choice of the quantity of good and its price is called
Answer
D. Demand function
19
A promotion in which customer have to a small amount of money together with some proof of purchase is
Answer
B. Self-liquidating promotion
20
Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2C companies with respect to promotion strategy ?
Answer
B. Pull strategy
21
Main aim of Panchayati Raj is
Answer
D. Decentralized governance
22
Convergence approach implies
Answer
B. Integration of multiple programs
23
Expansion stage involves
Answer
A. Birth of Children
24
Choose the major challenge in rural administration
Answer
C. Bureaucratic delays
25
Renewable source of energy
Answer
D. Solar energy
26
KVIC promotes
Answer
A. Village industries
27
ICAR is related to
Answer
B. Agriculture
28
Voluntary organizations are most eļ¬ective when they
Answer
C. Complement state eļ¬orts
29
Duvall has recognized how many family life cycle stages
Answer
D. 8
30
Eļ¬ective rural development requires
Answer
C. Coordination
31
A child who can hold a pencil and draw shape, or tie a shoe lace shows development in
Answer
A. Fine motor skills
32
Which situation best reļ¬ects readiness for school ?
Answer
B. Ability to sit, follow instructions, and interact
33
A preschool child insists that a taller glass has more water than a shorter, wider glass, even when both contain the same amount. This reļ¬ects
Answer
C. Preoperational thinking
34
A researcher manipulates variables and controls conditions. This approach is best described as
Answer
B. Experimental method
35
Which intervention best supports language development in delayed children ?
Answer
C. Rich verbal interaction and responsive communication
36
In an assessment of gross motor skills, which of the following represents the most critical āāRed Flagāā which requires an immediate clinical reference ?
Answer
C. An 18-month-old child who is not yet walking independently.
37
A 3-year-old child shows signiļ¬cant delays in gross motor skills, language acquisition, and social-emotional interaction. Which term is most appropriate for this clinical presentation ?
Answer
B. Global Developmental Delay
38
When evaluating a preschool curriculum for āDevelopmental Appropriatenessā (DAP), which factor is most critical according to NAEYC standards ?
Answer
C. Tailoring of activities with the childās age, individual personality and cultural context
39
A Home Science professional is asked to evaluate a āāHome-Based Interventionāā program for a rural family with a child who has Intellectual Disability. Identify the most signiļ¬cant disadvantage of this model that needs to be addressed
Answer
D. The family may experience āācaregiver burnoutāā and lack the social support found in group settings.
40
A client is consistently 15 minutes late to every session and avoids talking about their relationship with their father, despite it being the reason they sought help. The counsellor decides to gently point this pattern. This is an application of which advanced counselling skill ?
Answer
D. Confrontation(Challenging)
41
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Mid-Day Meal Scheme? (i) The Mid-Day meal scheme targets children studying in 1st to 8th classes. (ii) It aims to improve the nutritional level among children. (iii) It helps in increased School Enrolment and attendance.
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
42
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Anthropometric health indicators ? (i) Assess only the biochemical status of an individual (ii) Reļ¬ect past events and predict future risk (iii) Indicate present nutritional status (iv) Replace all other methods of nutritional assessment
Answer
C. (ii) and (iii) only
43
The question given below consists of an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Select the correct answer using the options given below. Assertion: Malnutrition in newborn infants can be determined by Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR). Reason: Assessment of birth weight for gestational age, including classiļ¬cation as small for gestational age (SGA), helps identify newborns who have experienced inadequate intrauterine growth. (i) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (ii) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (iii) A is true, but R is false (iv) A is false, but R is true
Answer
A. (i)
44
Anthropometric assessment is used for which of the following aspects of health and nutrition ? (i) Targeting interventions (ii) Assessing response to an intervention (iii) Nutritional surveillance (iv)All of the above
Answer
D. (iv)
45
Which of the following statements are TRUE for Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) Strategy in India ? (i) It targets six age groups, including children (6-59 months), school-age children (5-9 years), adolescents (10-19 years), pregnant and lactating women, and women of reproductive age (15-49 years) (ii) Behaviour change communication is not a part of the AMB strategy (iii) It includes prophylactic iron and folic acid supplementation (iv) It includes periodic deworming and intensifying awareness and screening of non- nutritional causes of anaemia
Answer
B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
46
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of vitamin A deļ¬ciency ? (i) Rickets (ii) Nyctalopia (iii)Xerophthalmia (iv) Skin and epithelial changes
Answer
A. (i)
47
Iodine Deļ¬ciency Disorder (IDD) includes a spectrum of disorders, which include (i) Goitre and osteomalacia (ii) Dermatitis, Goitre and Pellagra (iii) Goitre, cretinism, impaired physical and cognitive development (iv) Pellagra, Keratomalacia and Goitre
Answer
C. (iii)
48
Match the nutrient with its deļ¬ciency disease. Sr.No. Nutrient Sr.No. Disease/Symptom (i) Folate and B12 a Beriberi (ii) Ascorbic acid b Megaloblastic anaemia (iii) Thiamine c Rickets (iv) Vitamin D d Scurvy
Answer
C. (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-c
49
During the year 2025 in a district, there were 150 deaths due to cardiovascular diseases (CVDs). The districtās population in mid-year was 3,00,000. What is the CVD- speciļ¬c mortality rate per 1000 population ? (i) 0.2 (ii) 2 (iii) 5 (iv) 0.5
Answer
D. (iv)
50
Which of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures of disease frequency are correct ? (i) Prevalence of a disease depends on both duration of the disease and its incidence. (ii) Incidence is the occurrence of new cases in a population over a speciļ¬c period. (iii) A decrease in the case fatality rate will always lead to reduced prevalence. (iv) Attack rate is useful to measure incidence during an outbreak.
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
51
The form of polysaccharide stored in the body of animal which act as the reservoir source of energy.
Answer
B. Glycogen
52
The type of protein present in raw egg white binds with biotin making it unavailable.
Answer
C. Avidin
53
Stearic acid belongs to
Answer
A. Saturated fatty acid
54
Beriberi is the disease caused by the deļ¬ciency of
Answer
D. Vitamin B1
55
Which among the following act as a messenger in nerve signals passing between brain and other parts of the body and also helps in blood clotting ?
Answer
D. Calcium
56
As per EAR, requirement of iron per day for an 18-year adolescent girl is
Answer
B. 18 mg
57
Carbohydrate counting mostly useful in the management of which disease condition ?
Answer
B. Type I Diabetes mellitus
58
Ascites is a major symptom associated with
Answer
A. Cirrhosis
59
Weaning foods should be introduced to the infants
Answer
D. After 6 months
60
Which type of parenteral nutrition given when a patient requires an extended period of intensive nutritional support and cannot tolerate enteral oral or enteral nutrition ?
Answer
A. Total parenteral Nutrition
61
Assertion (A) : Nanobiotechnology integrates the design of new materials and devices with the speciļ¬city of biological molecules, enzymes, and cells to solve critical problems in biology. Reason (R) : Nanobiotechnology combines engineering and molecular biology to develop multifunctional devices and systems.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
62
Which of the following traits can be enhanced in GM crops ?
Answer
A. Pest resistance and herbicide tolerance
63
CRISPR technology can help develop crops with which of the following characteristics ?
Answer
B. Increased yield and improved nutritional content
64
The versatile dietary ļ¬bre which enhances the sensory and functional properties of meat analogs and pasta is
Answer
D. Inulin
65
What is the primary mechanism by which tea polyphenols reduce oxidative stress ?
Answer
C. Scavenging free radicals
66
Which of the following is a bioactive component found in soybean seeds that acts as a phytoestrogen ?
Answer
A. Genistein
67
Which organization microcredit programme inspired the popularity of SHGās in India ?
Answer
D. Grameen Bank
68
What is the proposed role of the National Digital Health Authority (NDHA) in the National Health Policy, 2017 ?
Answer
A. To regulate and deploy digital health across the continuum of care
69
Assertion (A): A 33% increase in recommended vegetable intake alone is suļ¬cient to eliminate micronutrient deļ¬ciencies in India. Reason (R): Micronutrient deļ¬ciencies are caused by multiple factors including dietary diversity, absorption, and health status.
Answer
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
70
Which feature distinguishes NGPs from conventional probiotics at a mechanistic level ?
Answer
B. Production of targeted metabolites inļ¬uencing host pathways
71
What does the term "feedback loop" signify in the context of assessment and evaluation
Answer
A. A continuous process of providing feedback throughout the learning period
72
What is the primary purpose of formative assessment in an evaluation system ?
Answer
B. Providing feedback during the learning process
73
How does the concept of "Inclusive Education" align with eļ¬ective teaching practices ? i. By excluding students with diverse needs ii. By accommodating and valuing the diversity of all students iii. By focusing solely on advanced learners
Answer
B. only ii
74
What does the acronym "STEM" represent in the context of education ?
Answer
C. Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics
75
How does the concept of "Blooms Taxonomy" contribute to instructional design ? i. By promoting a single level of cognitive engagement ii. By categorizing cognitive skills into hierarchical levels iii. By emphasizing rote memorization
Answer
B. Only ii
76
In a research context, what does reliability refer to ?
Answer
A. The consistency and stability of measurement
77
What is plagiarism in the context of research ethics ?
Answer
C. Unauthorized use of others' work without proper attribution
78
What is the primary purpose of obtaining informed consent in research ?
Answer
C. To respect participants' autonomy and rights
79
What is the initial step in the research process ?
Answer
D. Identifying the research problem
80
What characterizes a longitudinal research design ?
Answer
C. Data collected over an extended period from the same subjects
81
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the suspension of fundamental rights ? i. Parliament can suspend fundamental rights by passing a law with a two-third majority ii. During an emergency, the President, by order, can suspend the enforcement of some fundamental rights iii. By the proclamation of emergency issued on the ground of war or external aggression, all fundamental rights are automatically suspended iv. Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
Answer
C. Only ii
82
Match the following Articles in the Constitution with suitable provisions. a. Article 124 i. Extension of jurisdiction of High Court to Union territories b. Article 136 ii. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court c. Article 230 iii. Constitution of Supreme Court d. Article 224 iv. Appointment of additional and acting judges in High Court by the President
Answer
D. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
83
Assertion (A) : The Legislature of a state or High Court has no role in the removal of the Governor. Reason (R) : No Governor can be removed from the oļ¬ce till the completion of ļ¬ve year.
Answer
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
84
Which of the following features has been correctly listed about Centre- State relations in India ? i. Constitution ensures equal representation of states in Rajya Sabha. ii. Legislative and executive powers are divided between Central Government and State Governments. iii. Union Parliament can make any law for implementing international treaties and agreements without the state's consent, even if the subjects are covered in the State List. iv. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution, supported by one-third of members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, then parliament can make laws on any subject in the State List.
Answer
C. Only ii and iii
85
The Chairman and the members of the UPSC shall only be removed from oļ¬ce, on the ground of misbehaviour, by an order of
Answer
C. the President on the report of Supreme Court
86
Arrange the formation of following commissions in chronological order. i. National Human Rights Commission ii. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights iii. National Commission for Women iv. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Answer
B. iii, i, iv, ii
87
How parliament can amend a list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Answer
D. The amendment Bill passed in both Houses of Parliament by two third majority of members present and voting and a majority of total membership. Ratiļ¬cation by not less than half of State Legislatures are also required
88
Which of the following statements about the duration of State Emergency is correct ? i. The proclamation, under Article 356, will cease to operate at the expiry of two months unless both houses of the Parliament have approved it before that period. ii. A proclamation issued under Article 356 can be in force normally for one year at a stretch. iii. Parliament can extend the period of State emergency beyond one year, if the Election Commission certiļ¬es that it is necessary on account of the diļ¬culties in holding the general elections to Legislative Assembly of the concerned state. iv. Parliament can extend the period of State Emergency beyond one year if a proclamation of emergency under Article 352 is in operation.
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
Originally Preamble was not considered as a part of constitution. But the Supreme Court held that it was a part of Constitution. The Supreme Court gave this verdict in which of the following case ?
Answer
A. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
90
Which of the following statement is/are not the objective of Right to Information Act ? i. to empower the citizens ii. to promote transparency and accountability in the working of government iii. to make our democracy work for the people in the real sense iv. to have time bound redressal of grievances of citizen
Answer
C. Only iv
91
Swami Vagbhatananda denounced caste barriers and idol worship and exhorted his followers to abjure such practices. He was the founder of
Answer
B. Atma Vidya Sangham
92
The ļ¬rst full ļ¬edged Malayalam work printed in the language using Malayalam types was
Answer
B. Samkshepa Vedartham
93
The famous Kerala reform leader K. Ayyappan is related with i. Popularised the idea of Misrabhojanam. ii. Promoted women education. iii. Encouraged Gender Equality. iv. Founded Sahodara Sangham.
Answer
D. All are correct
94
"Enlighten through education and strengthen by union" who said these words ?
Answer
B. Sri Narayana Guru
95
With regard to the incident Gandhiji said, "A miracle of modern times and a smriti which is the people's charter of spiritual emancipation".
Answer
B. Temple entry proclamation
96
Proclamation of Free Primary Education in 1817 is remarkable in the education sector. The proclamation was during the reign of
Answer
C. Gouri Parvathy Bhai
97
Nalappat Narayana Menon has immortalised himself in Malayalam poetry by his beautiful elegy,
Answer
B. Kannunirtulli
98
As a part of the campaign for eradication of untouchability a Satyagraha was organised during the period of December-April 1948 and it evoked the willing participation of princes of Royal families of Cochin. Which Satyagraha was mentioned above ?
Answer
C. Paliyam Satyagraha
99
The news paper Swadesabhimani, was owned by
Answer
B. Abdul Khadir Maulavi
100
Royal proclamation of July 26, 1859 is related to
Answer
C. Shanar Agitation
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