Skip to content
10th Level - Practice App Completely Free · 100K+ Users Install

Kerala PSC Higher Secondary School Teacher in Zoology – Kerala Higher Secondary Education Previous Question Paper – 058/2022/OL

Practice Mode

Sit all 93 questions full screen, one at a time. Sign in and your score, your time and where you got to are kept — put it down here and finish it on your phone.

Sign in to practise
Post NameHigher Secondary School Teacher in Zoology - Kerala Higher Secondary Education
Question Paper Code058/2022/OL
Category Code281/2020
Date of Test2 August 2022
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Find out the correct statement regarding acromegaly and the influence of high level of growh hormone (GH) in it.
Answer
B. increased level of GH, stimulate increased production of insulin like growth factor one (IGF _1 ) from the liver
2
Human digestive glands includes,
Answer
D. salivary gland, liver and pancreas
3
Choose the correct match
Answer
D. Vitamin E - Tocopherol
4
Which among the following requires cyanocobalamine in its formation?
Answer
A. RBC
5
The correct order of the three phases of the cardiac cycle
Answer
C. mid-to-late diastole, ventricular systole, early diastole
6
Choose the incorrect statement regarding enzymes
Answer
B. Substrate binds on the allosteric site
7
Acetyl CoA combines with which among the following to form a 6-carbon compound in TCA cycle
Answer
A. Oxaloacetate
8
In Triacylglycerol synthesis, which among the following pathway is not used
Answer
B. Glyoxylate pathway
9
Name the regulatory enzyme, that regulates the biosynthesis of cholesterol and serves as the druggable target, for the reduction of hyper cholesterolemia
Answer
B. HMG - CoA reductase
10
Choose the incorrect statement regarding oxidative phosphorylation
Answer
C. Direct transfer of phosphate from a substrate molecule to ADP
11
Choose the correct statement regarding the characteristics of a gram positive bacterial cell well
Answer
D. all of the above
12
Select the incorrect statement regarding peptidoglycan
Answer
D. none of the above
13
Differences between rhinoviruses and enteroviruses is due to their,
Answer
A. ability to survive acidic conditions
14
Match the following : (i) Septa (a) Loosely organized mass (ii) Hyphae (b) Cross wall seperating (iii) Mycelium (c) Thread like structures (iv) Thallus (d) Body of fungus
Answer
Question Cancelled
15
Name the bacteria that requires nicotinic acid as a growth factor while culturing
Answer
C. Proteus Vulgaris
16
Which among the following is not related to innate immunity
Answer
C. previous contact
17
Primary sites of cancer metastasis
Answer
B. Lymph nodes
18
Identify the class of MHC, which is recognized by š¶š·4 TH Cell
Answer
B. MHC II
19
Types of bonds found in antigen-antibody interaction
Answer
C. weak hydrogen bond and vanderwaals forces
20
Pick out the main reason for the autiommunity developed in our body
Answer
C. immune system begins to attack its cells and tissues
21
The hydrophilic region in the cell membrane is
Answer
A. surface of the cell membrane
22
Relating to NER (Nuclear Excision Repair) mechanism, which among the following statement is correct
Answer
B. NER is present in both prokaryotes and Eukaroytes, but the exact mechanism varies
23
In E.Coli, which type of DNA replication occurs
Answer
D. semi conservative and bidirectional
24
Find out the true statement regarding lac operon
Answer
A. lac operon is an inducible system
25
Enhancers found in which position, are incapable to enhance the process of transcription
Answer
Question Cancelled
26
Find out the correct statement regarding restriction endonucleases
Answer
C. Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within the recognition site
27
Application of a probe in genetic engineering occurs in which stage?
Answer
D. Screening
28
For the amplification of random DNA fragments which techniques is widely applicable
Answer
C. RAPD
29
Transfections of which among the following is needed for the production of transgenic animals.
Answer
A. eggs or embryos
30
Maxam-Gilbert method cannot be used to find out the sequence of which among the following?
Answer
C. Bacteriophage š‘‡7
31
Genetic code for Leucine
Answer
A. UUA
32
In Diploid organisms, crossing over causes :
Answer
C. recombination of linked genes
33
Name the chemical mutagen, which is mutagenic only for replicating DNA.
Answer
D. Base analog
34
Point out a non characteristic feature of Down's syndrome
Answer
B. tallness
35
During protein synthesis, which type of RNA function as an adaptor molecule?
Answer
C. tRNA
36
In order to penetrate the egg mambrane, sperms secretes which among the following enzymes?
Answer
C. hyaluronidase
37
Choose the correct statement about cells, regarding clevage
Answer
A. size does not increase
38
Pick out a hormone, which is not produced by placenta
Answer
Question Cancelled
39
In which stage of embryogenesis, formation of primitive streak occurs
Answer
D. gastrula
40
High concentration of which hormone causes ovulation?
Answer
Question Cancelled
41
A biological classification approach in which organisms are categorized in groups based on shared traits
Answer
A. Cladistics
42
Which among the following is the hierarchical system used in classifying an organism?
Answer
C. Domain→Kingdom→Phylum →Subphylum →Class→ Order→Family →Genus →Species
43
The International Commission of Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN) was founded in the year
Answer
B. 1895
44
A derived character shared by clade members of a clade
Answer
C. Synapomorphy
45
Which among the following is not among the basic rules of species names?
Answer
D. None of the above
46
Which among the following is Lamarck's evolutionary framework?
Answer
C. The development of the organs, and their ability, are constantly a result of the use of those organs
47
The theory that proposes once a species appears in the fossil record, the population will become stable, showing little evolutionary change for most of its geological history
Answer
B. Punctuated equilibrium
48
The development of resistance by insects to pesticides is an example for
Answer
C. Microevolution
49
Which of the following is NOT an example of coevolution?
Answer
A. Acacia ants and lodgepole pines
50
The modern synthetic theory of evolution was proposed by
Answer
D. Theodosius Dobzhansky
51
An urn-shaped age structure represents
Answer
B. Diminishing population
52
In ecological succession, the pioneer species is characterized by
Answer
A. Higher rates of resource uptake
53
The type of learning in which there is no association between stimuli and response
Answer
C. Habituation
54
Who unravel the details of dance language of honey bees?
Answer
B. Karl von Frisch
55
In which district, Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated
Answer
B. Malappuram
56
The part of India that falls in the Sundaland hotspot
Answer
D. The Nicobar Islands
57
Among all the measures of dispersion, standard deviation is best. Why?
Answer
Question Cancelled
58
Calculate the arithmetic mean of the marks obtained by 12 students of a class for an exam. The marks obtained are : 40, 35, 42, 50, 48, 30, 31, 37, 45, 28, 20, 25
Answer
B. 35.9
59
The voltage range at which the Standard Transmission Electron Microscopes (TEMs) operate
Answer
C. 10,000-1,00,000 V
60
Which among the following is not an example for secondary data?
Answer
B. Data prepared from the analysis of blood samples
61
Misfolding of proteins can cause a number of diseases. Which among the following misfolded protein in neurons is responsible for Parkinson's disease?
Answer
C. Alpha-synuclein
62
Which among the following is the 'Carrion bee'?
Answer
C. Trigona crassipes
63
Which gene has been found to be responsible to detect signatures of evolution in severe mental illness?
Answer
B. Neanderthal genes
64
Which among the following microbes cannot produce oxygen?
Answer
B. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
65
Pigs have been preferred as ideal candidates for xenotransplantation in humans. What vital genetic modifications made the pig heart xenotransplantation possible?
Answer
D. All of the above
66
Pigs exposed to the coronavirus don't show clinical signs of disease nor do they transmit the virus to other animals. Find the reason
Answer
Question Cancelled
67
Air pollution significantly reduces pollination. Why?
Answer
A. Pollutants react with and change the floral odours making the insects confused
68
Antibiotic-Resistant Bacteria were in Hedgehogs a century before we used antibiotics. Which among the following strain was identified in hedgehogs?
Answer
B. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
69
The toxic cardiac glycosides produced by Milkweed is potent to kill mammals including humans. Which part of the animal cells are targeted by these toxins? 2
Answer
C. š‘š‘Ž +, š¾ + pump
70
Among the new species described in 2021, which among the following snake species was identified from India
Answer
A. Oligodon churahensis
71
Which of the following is the correct sequence of taxonomic levels of affective domain?
Answer
D. Receiving, responding, valuing, organisation, characterisation
72
The teaching technique that creates democratic, individual, free-flowing creative expression by students is related with (i) Brain based learning (ii) Buzz session (iii) Brain storming technique (iv) Jigsaw technique
Answer
D. Only (iii)
73
Which of the following statements are related with models? (i) Non-projected aid (ii) Depends on multiple sense (iii) Concrete representation of an object (iv) Depends on single sense (v) Three-dimensional aid
Answer
Question Cancelled
74
The term problem children is generally used to describe children who
Answer
D. are malaadjusted
75
Critically examine the following statements and find out the appropriate ones in connection with portfolio (i) Effective form of alternative assessment (ii) Measuring achievement over a period of time (iii) Used to showcase the learning work (iv) A reflection of one's purposeful learning efforts (v) Effective form of ongoing assessment
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
76
Which is not true with respect to survey-type research?
Answer
B. Appropriate for physical and natural sciences
77
Which of the following is not the source for secondary data?
Answer
A. Survey
78
Examine the following characteristics and find out the appropriate research type (i) It is not concerned with finding new generalizations (ii) It is initiated to solve immediate problems (iii) It is situational, collaborative, self-evaluative and participatory (iv) It is carried out on a small sample
Answer
B. Action research
79
An experimental design where the subjects are randomly assigned to experimental treatments is known as
Answer
B. Completely randomized design
80
Which type of error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is actually false?
Answer
C. Type II error
81
The preamble of the Indian constitution secures justice, liberty, equality and fraternity to
Answer
D. All citizens of India
82
The constitution of India describes India as
Answer
D. A union of states
83
In Indian constitution promotion of International peace and security included in the
Answer
D. Directive principles of state policy
84
Which one of the following schedules of the Indian constitution contain provision regarding anti-defection act
Answer
D. Tenth Schedule
85
Who is responsible for the observance of the 'Rules of business' of the state government in India?
Answer
D. Chief secretary of the state government
86
Environment protection act was passed by the parliament of India in
Answer
A. May 1986
87
The national food security act was signed in to law on
Answer
B. 12th Sept 2013
88
The power to remove state information commissioner or state chief information commissioner shall be vested in the
Answer
C. Governor
89
Which state in India started Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee programme first
Answer
A. Andra Pradesh
90
What is the age limit for organ donation in India
Answer
C. No age limit
91
Which of the following statement about Vaikunda Swamikal is / are correct? (i) He promoted inter-dining (ii) He founded a Nizhalthankal at Kannanmoola (iii) He adopted Anpukodi or flag of love (iv) He was in favour of Devadasi system
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
92
Consider the following statements about Vaikom Satyagraha. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (i) Vaikom Satyagraha began on April 30, 1924 (ii) SNDP Yogam did not support the movement (iii) Mahatma Gandhi visited Vaikom on March 9, 1925
Answer
C. Only (iii)
93
Consider the following social reformers and their works. Which of them are correctly matched? (i) Pandit Karuppan - Balarama Bharatham (ii) Vagbhtananda - Brahmasankirttanam (iii) Sree Narayana Guru - Darsanamala
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
94
Which of the following statements about Temple Entry Proclamation of 1936 in Travancore is/are correct? (i) All Kerala Temple Entry Conference was held under the auspices of Hindu Maha Sabha in May 1936 (ii) A memorial was submitted to Diwan Sir C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer on 3rd November, 1936 (iii) Mahatma Gandhi said, 'It was easily the most non-violent and bloodless revolution in the history of man in recent years'
Answer
B. Only (ii)
95
Consider the following statements about Malayali Memorial. Which of them is/are correct? (i) K.P.Sankara Menon, Dr. Palpu and G.P. Pillai played key role in drafting the petition (ii) Dr. Palpu published a pamphlet, 'Travancore for Travancoreans' (iii) A delegation led by K.P. Sankara Menon presented the memorial to Mahraja on January 11, 1891.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
96
Who is the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission?
Answer
D. Arun Kumar Mishra
97
From which of the following state in India a unique set of fossilised Dinosaur eggs were discovered recently?
Answer
A. Madhya Pradesh
98
Which of the following statements about United Nations Organizations is/are correct? (i) The UN charter was drawn up in San Francisco in 1945 (ii) German is one of the official languages of UNO (iii) The International Court of Justice has fifteen judges elected for a term of ten years
Answer
A. Only (i)
99
Four deserts and the continents in which they are are located are given below. Find out the correct matching (a) Kalahari (1) Australia (b) Atacama (2) Asia (c) Gobi (3) South America (d) Great victoria (4) Africa
Answer
B. (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1)
100
Considering the benefits of GST to a consumer, which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Uniform prices throughout the country (ii) Complex tax system (iii) Transparency in taxation system (iv) Increase unemployment
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)

Related reading

Discussion

Ask a doubt or share a tip.

No comments yet — start the discussion.

Leave a comment

Your email address and number are never published. Required fields are marked

We will email you a code to confirm the address. Posting creates a PSCNET account if you do not have one.

By posting, you agree to our Privacy Policy.