| Post Name | HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL TEACHER (JUNIOR) - COMMERCE (Kerala) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 075/2025 |
| Category Code | 127/2024 |
| Date of Test | 30 June 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following best describes exploratory research?
Answer
C. Seeks new insights into phenomena
2
Arrange these steps in order :
(i) Data collection
(ii) Hypothesis formulation
(iii) Problem identification
(iv) Data analysis
Answer
C. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
3
A researcher calculates the Pearson correlation coefficient between two variables as
– 0.92. What does this result indicate?
Answer
B. A strong negative correlation between the variables
4
Match the following :
(i) t-test
Answer
A. Tests differences between means
(ii) ANOVA
5
Assertion
Answer
D. Both
6
The OLS estimator is BLUE because :
Answer
D. It has minimum variance
7
Match the following :
(i) Kurtosis
Answer
A. Durbin-Watson test
(ii) Heteroscedasticity
8
Assertion
Answer
D. Both
9
Which of the following is not typically a component of financial modelling?
Answer
C. Psychological bias identification
10
Assertion
Answer
A. : Depository Participants
11
Which of the following is not a component of personal finance?
Answer
C. Corporate tax planning
12
An employee of a listed company uses confidential financial data to trade company
shares before the information is publicly released. What kind of malpractice does this
situation represent?
Answer
A. Insider Trading
13
Arrange the investment steps :
(i) Asset allocation
(ii) Risk assessment
(iii) Performance monitoring
(iv) Security selection
Answer
A. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
14
The tendency of investors to hold losing investments too long and sell winning
investments too soon is called :
Answer
B. Disposition effect
15
Match the derivative instruments with their key characteristics :
A B
(i) Futures
Answer
A. Agreement to exchange cash flows
(ii) Options
16
Which of the following is true regarding CML and SML?
Answer
C. Both
17
According to the Efficient Market Hypothesis, which of the following statements is true?
Answer
B. It is impossible to outperform the market consistently through technical or
fundamental analysis
18
The Sharpe Ratio is used to measure :
Answer
C. The portfolio’s excess return per unit of risk
19
Which is not an example of a financial derivative?
Answer
Question Cancelled
20
Identify the correct set of assumptions for Markowitz Portfolio Theory :
(i) Investors are rational and risk-averse
(ii) Returns are normally distributed
(iii) Investors care only about mean and variance of returns
(iv) Markets are always inefficient
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
21
In derivatives trading, lot size refers to :
Answer
B. The fixed number of units of the underlying asset in one contract
22
Which of the following taxes was not subsumed under GST?
Answer
C. Customs Duty
23
Which of the following scenarios would be considered deemed ownership under the
Income Tax Act?
Answer
D. Individual holding property under a Power of Attorney
24
Which assessment is referred to as “summary assessment” under Section 143(1)?
Answer
C. Intimation-based assessment
25
Subha, aged 35, has a salary income of Rs. 8,00,000 during the financial year 2023-24.
She claims a deduction of Rs. 1,50,000 under Section 80C. Calculate Subha’s total
income tax liability for Assessment Year 2024-25 under the old tax regime :
Answer
A. Rs. 44,200
26
Consider the following statements regarding GST, and select the correct statements :
(i) A multi-stage tax system
(ii) Elimination of cascading effect
(iii) A unified direct tax system in the country
(iv) Reduction in compliance burden
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
27
Match the following :
Types of Returns Filing Due Date
(i) ITR-1
Answer
Question Cancelled
28
Which of the following is not exempted from tax under section 10 of the Income Tax
Act, 1961?
Answer
D. Income from winnings of lotteries
29
A company has a variable cost of Rs. 60 per unit and fixed costs of Rs. 2,00,000. If the
desired profit is Rs. 1,00,000 and expected sales are 10,000 units, the selling price per
unit under Marginal Costing should be :
Answer
C. Rs. 90
30
A company can produce a component at a variable cost of Rs. 50 per unit. The same
component is available in the market at Rs. 45 per unit. If the fixed cost is unavoidable,
what should the company do :
Answer
B. Buy the component from the market
31
Actual Labour Cost is Rs. 1,20,000 for 10,000 hours. Standard Labour Cost is
Rs. 1,00,000 for 10,000 hours. Labour Rate Variance is :
Answer
B. Rs. 20,000
32
A chemical company has three processes in sequence. During a month, Process 1
produces 10,000 units, but 1,000 units are defective and scrapped. Process 2 receives
only good units from Process 1 and produces 8,500 units. Which statement best describes
the process costing application here?
Answer
B. Scrap losses must be incorporated into process cost calculations
33
Which of the following is not one of the Cost Accounting Standards issued by the
Institute of Cost Accountants of India?
Answer
Question Cancelled
34
Which Lean manufacturing tool focuses on identifying and eliminating non-value-added
activities?
Answer
B. Value Stream Mapping
35
A factory finds that 80% of defects come from 20% of machines. Using Pareto Analysis,
what action is recommended?
Answer
A. Focus maintenance and quality checks primarily on those 20% machines
36
Which of the following statements are correct about Ind AS (Indian Accounting
Standards)?
(i) Ind AS are converged with IFRS but not identical to IFRS
(ii) Ind AS is applicable to companies listed in stock exchanges outside India
(iii) Ind AS allows the use of the LIFO method for inventory valuation
Answer
A. Only (i)
37
Assertion (A) : The purchase method is more commonly used in accounting for
amalgamations in the nature of purchase.
Reason (R) : Under the purchase method, the assets and liabilities are
incorporated at book values.
Answer
C. are true, and
38
Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Double Account System’?
Answer
A. A system where current and capital accounts are shown separately in one
statement
39
Which of the following is not a method of calculating purchase consideration in
amalgamation?
Answer
D. Shareholder value method
075/2025 10 A
40
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(IBC), 2016?
Answer
C. Protection of only operational creditors
41
Which of the following are true regarding Accounting for Internal Reconstruction?
(i) It involves writing off accumulated losses.
(ii) It results in the liquidation of the company.
(iii) It may include revaluation of assets and liabilities.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
42
The main purpose of preparing voyage accounts is to :
Answer
B. Compute the profit or loss for each trip or voyage
43
Which of the following statements are true about Joint Ventures in international
business?
(i) It allows sharing of risk and technology.
(ii) It requires full ownership by the foreign company.
(iii) It can provide access to local market knowledge.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
44
Assertion (A) : Economic unions are more integrated than customs unions.
Reason (R) : Economic unions allow free movement of goods but not capital or
labour.
Answer
C. are true, and
45
Which of the following best explains the disequilibrium in the Balance of Payments
Answer
C. Persistent current account deficit not balanced by capital inflows
46
Match the Institutions with their Respective Roles :
Institution Role
(i) IMF
Answer
A. Political risk insurance for investors
(ii) IFC
47
According to the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory, a country’s exchange rate
should adjust to reflect changes in :
Answer
B. Its inflation differentials relative to another country
48
Which of the following are features of the forward foreign exchange market?
(i) It deals with contracts for future delivery of foreign currency
(ii) It is used primarily for hedging currency risk
(iii) The exchange rate is fixed at the spot market rate
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
49
Which of the following accurately reflects the function of UNCTAD in international
business?
Answer
C. Assisting developing countries in trade and development issues
50
Which of the following statements are correct about the Japanese management system?
(i) It emphasises long-term employment and loyalty
(ii) It follows individual performance-based promotion
(iii) It promotes consensus-based decision-making
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
51
Assertion (A) : Frederick Herzberg’s two-factor theory highlights hygiene and
motivational factors.
Reason (R) : Hygiene factors, such as recognition and achievement, prevent
dissatisfaction.
Answer
C. are true, and
52
Which of the following correctly defines Six Sigma?
Answer
C. A customer-focused process improvement methodology aiming at 3.4 defects
per million
53
Which of the following is not a force influencing group behaviour in organisations?
Answer
C. Formal communication channels
54
Which of the following are considered pillars of TQM?
(i) Customer focus
(ii) Employee involvement
(iii) Profit maximisation
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
55
Which leadership style involves high concern for people and high concern for production?
Answer
B. Team Leadership
56
According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following needs is fulfilled when
an employee receives promotions and recognition?
Answer
C. Esteem needs
57
Which of the following are objectives of corporate governance?
(i) Protection of shareholder rights
(ii) Transparency and accountability in corporate operations
(iii) Maximising tax benefits for companies
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
58
Assertion (A) : Clause 49 of the SEBI listing agreement plays a key role in improving
corporate governance in India.
Reason (R) : It mandates the appointment of auditors by the government to ensure
financial control.
Answer
C. are true, and
59
Which of the following is a mandatory CSR activity under Section 135 of the Companies
Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Promoting gender equality and women’s empowerment
60
Which corporate governance model, characterized by concentrated ownership and a
two-tier board structure with representation for both shareholders and employees,
suggests that control often lies with a few dominant shareholders within this
framework?
Answer
B. German Model
61
Which of the following best defines whistleblowing?
Answer
B. Reporting of unethical or illegal acts within an organisation by an insider
62
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Audit Committee under the
Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
C. Approve share buyback schemes
63
Which of the following best describes the relationship between law and ethics in
business?
Answer
C. Ethics and law often overlap, but ethics go beyond legal compliance
64
Which of the following are components of financial management decisions?
(i) Financing decisions
(ii) Investment decisions
(iii) Dividend decisions
Answer
C. All of the above
65
According to Modigliani and Miller (MM) theory under no taxes, the value of a firm is :
Answer
C. Independent of capital structure
66
Which of the following is an advantage of lease financing over term loans?
Answer
D. Avoids upfront capital investment
67
In EBIT-EPS analysis, the point of indifference is defined as the level of EBIT at which :
Answer
B. EPS under the two financing options is the same
68
Which of the following assumes that the firm has no retained earnings and finances all
investments externally?
Answer
C. MM Dividend Irrelevance Model
69
Which combination indicates combined leverage in a firm?
Answer
C. Contribution / EBT
70
Which ratio is best used to assess a firm’s short-term liquidity?
Answer
C. Current Ratio
71
Which is not a characteristic of Problem Based Learning?
Answer
D. Specification of a predetermined end product
72
Field dependent learners are :
Answer
C. Social and Co-operative
73
Two statements are given below :
(i) Culturally responsive teaching recognizes the importance of creating an
environment where all students feel valued, respected, and understood.
(ii) Avoiding culturally sensitive assessments helps ensure that all students have an
equal opportunity to succeed.
Select the correct one with respect to these statements
Answer
B. Statement (i) is correct, but Statement (ii) is wrong
74
Learner related factors affecting teaching are :
(i) Previous experience of the learner
(ii) Maturity level of the learner
(iii) Parental education of the learner
Answer
B. (i) and (ii)
75
A mathematics teacher asks students to write a reflective journal to document their
approach, strategies, and thought processes as they work through the mathematics
problem. The assessment in this case is :
Answer
A. Assessment as learning
76
Two statements are given below :
Statement (i) : Internal validity of an experimental research is always ensured
statistically.
Statement (ii) : Internal validity examines the extent to which systematic error is
present in the experimental research.
Which among the following is true with respect to these statements?
Answer
C. Statement (i) is incorrect, but (ii) is correct
77
Which qualitative research approach is primarily concerned with understanding the
lived experience?
Answer
D. Phenomenology
78
Dr. X uses their own published work without indicating that it has been published
earlier. This is a case of :
Answer
B. Auto Plagiarism
79
Formulation of hypothesis helps in :
(i) Making the study focused
(ii) Reporting the results objectively
(iii) Review of related studies
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
80
Consider the following statements :
(i) Conference and symposium focus on dissemination of knowledge
(ii) Conference is a smaller event compared to symposia
(iii) In conference there will be presentations by researchers, professionals and experts
on their latest research findings, exchange ideas and network.
(iv) A symposium is usually centred on a specific theme or topic.
Which statements are correct?
Answer
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
81
Consider the following statement(s) in respect of Anti-defection Law in India :
(i) The 10th schedule of the Constitution of India is about Anti -Defection Law.
(ii) The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to
the President who will take a decision on the advice of Election Commission.
(iii) All proceedings in relation to the disqualification under this Schedule are
considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the
case.
Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct?
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
82
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about GST Council?
(i) The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council
(ii) The Prime Minister of India is not a member of the GST Council
(iii) The Finance Secretary of the Government of India is a member of the GST Council
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
83
Which of the following statement(s) is /are true with reference to the Joint sitting of the
Parliament?
(i) According to Article 108, the President can make rules for the procedure of the
joint sitting after due consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and
the Speaker of the House of the People.
(ii) The President of India has the power to call a joint sitting
(iii) In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha, the joint
sitting of the Parliament is presided by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer
C. Only (ii)
84
Which statement(s) regarding the Estimates Committee is/ are True?
(i) The Estimates Committee is the Largest Committee of the Parliament
(ii) The term of the committee is Two years
(iii) Estimates committee consisting of members from both Houses of Parliament
Answer
C. Only (i)
85
Which of the following statements about Emergency provisions under the Constitution of
India is/are not correct?
(i) Proclamation of Emergency must be approved by the two houses of Parliament
with special majority within two months
(ii) Every resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency or its continuance must
be passed by either house of Parliament by a special majority
(iii) The 44th Amendment Act made the Declaration of National Emergency immune to
Judicial review.
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
Consider the statements given below :
(i) 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved Four subjects from the State List to the
Concurrent List.
(ii) Article 248 empowers the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the
State List in the national interest.
(iii) Establishment of standards of weight and measure is included in the Union List.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the 7th Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
Answer
D. Only (iii)
87
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Domestic Violence Act of 2005?
(i) Section 16 deals with Proceedings to be held in Camera
(ii) Section 3 deals with Definition of Domestic violence
(iii) Section 22 deals with the Duties and Functions of the Protection Officers
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
88
Which of the following statement(s) regarding Central Information Commission is /are
correct?
(i) The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, set up under Section 18
of the Right to Information Act in 2005
(ii) It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than Eight
Information Commissioners
(iii) Section 14 of the Right to Information Act 2005 deals with Removal of the Chief
Information Commissioner or Information Commissioners
Answer
C. Only (iii)
89
With reference to the sections of The Wildlife Protection Act 1972, consider the following
statements :
(i) National Board for Wildlife was constituted under Section 5A.
(ii) National Tiger Conservation Authority was constituted under section 38L.
(iii) Section 6 of the Act deals with Prohibition of hunting.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct about Wildlife Protection Act 1972?
Answer
B. Only (iii)
90
Consider the following statements regarding 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India :
(i) The 71st Amendment to the Indian Constitution included Konkani, Manipuri and
Nepali languages in the 8th Schedule.
(ii) The Sindhi language was added in the 8th Schedule by the 31st Amendment Act.
(iii) Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
91
‘Devagita’ is a well-known Malayalam translation of Jayadev's “Geeta Govinda’’. Name
the poet who translated it into Malayalam :
Answer
D. Changampuzha Krishna Pillai
92
The author of the book entitled ‘Wonder that was India’ :
Answer
A. A.L. Basham
93
Three Language formula for education was proposed by :
Answer
A. Kothari commission
94
The Peasant uprising of Malabar was known as :
Answer
B. Mappila Rebellion
95
The Gayathri Mantra is the most reversed Vedic Mantra in Hinduism. Which Vedic Sage
is considered as the author of Gayathri Mantra?
Answer
A. Sage Viswamitra
96
Tinkathia system is associated with which one of the following movement?
Answer
A. Champaran Satyagraha
97
Who was Saradamani?
Answer
B. Wife of Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
98
Community development programme is implemented at the :
Answer
B. Block level
99
Which one of the following is wrongly listed with regard to Kanpur conspiracy case?
Answer
D. M.N. Roy
100
‘Hinduism dies if untouchability lives and untouchability has to die if Hinduism is to
live’. This was said by :
Answer
C. Gandhi
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