| Post Name | HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL TEACHER (PHYSICS) (Kerala Higher) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 076/2025 |
| Category Code | 507/2024 |
| Date of Test | 30 June 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The principle is used to derive equations of motion for constrained mechanical systems :
Answer
B. D’Alembert’s Principle
2
A particle of mass, m moves under the action of central force whose potential is
V (r ) = kmr 3 ( k > 0) . Then energy for which the orbit will be circle of radius a about the
origin is :
3 3
Answer
Question Cancelled
3
If Q = q a cos bp , P = q a sin bp represents a Canonical transformation, the values of
a and b are :
1
Answer
B. a= ;b=2
4
Which of the following is incorrect about Coriolis force?
Answer
C. It deflects the wind to the right direction Southern hemisphere
5
If a planet A has a longer orbital period than another planet B average distance of the
planet A from the Sun :
Answer
A. larger
6
In the logistic map equation x n +1 = r ⋅ x n ⋅ (1 − x n ) , r represents :
Answer
Question Cancelled
7
The Hamiltonian of a particle of mass m, with coordinate q, whose Lagrangian is L = (1/2)m q̇² − (k/2)q q̇², k is a constant, is:
Answer
C. p²/[2(m − kq)]
8
The key property of Fourier series that makes it useful for representing periodic
functions :
Answer
B. represent any periodic function with a finite number of terms
9
Legendre polynomials are orthogonal within the interval:
Answer
A. [−1, 1]
10
Consider a counterclockwise circular contour z = 1 about the origin. Let f(z) = z sin z/(z − π)², then the integral ∮f(z) dz over this contour is:
Answer
C. zero
11
Which of the following function is analytic?
1
Answer
Question Cancelled
12
Which of the following is correct about Legendre Polynomial?
Answer
A. nPn = (2n − 1)xPn −1 − (n − 1)Pn − 2
13
Laguerre polynomials are commonly used in quantum mechanics to describe :
Answer
C. The radial part of wavefunctions
14
The Dirac delta function is defined as a distribution with the property :
Answer
D. It is localized at a single point
15
In which region does an FET operate when used as a Voltage Variable Resistor (VVR)?
Answer
D. Ohmic region
16
What is the role of the depletion region in a p-n junction solar cell?
Answer
B. It creates an internal electric field that separates photo-generated
electron-hole pairs
17
Which of the following statement is true for an inverting amplifier configuration of an
Op-Amp?
Answer
A. The output is 180° out of phase with the input
18
What will be the quality factor of a band-pass filter with a lower cutoff frequency, 1 kHz
and an upper cutoff frequency, 9 kHz?
Answer
C. 0.375
19
Identify the key difference between an astable and a monostable multivibrator :
Answer
B. Monostable requires an external trigger, astable does not
20
Which of the following circuits is used to recover the original message signal from an
AM
Answer
C. Envelope detector
21
Which of the following statement is/are correct about FM transmitters?
(i) FM transmitters vary the amplitude of the carrier signal in proportion to the input
signal.
(ii) FM transmitters vary the frequency of the carrier signal based on the amplitude of
the modulating signal.
(iii) FM transmitters produce signals that are more susceptible to noise than
AM transmitters.
Answer
A. Only (ii)
22
In a microcomputer, the system bus is made up of which of the following?
Answer
D. Data bus, Address bus and Control bus
23
During 16-bit addition by using two 8-bit registers, how is the carry from the lower byte
handled?
Answer
B. Added to the higher byte addition
24
What is the duration of a single T-state in an 8085 microprocessor with a clock frequency
of 5 MHz?
Answer
A. 200 nanoseconds
25
What will be the contents of the top two stack locations following the execution of
PUSH B if the contents of registers B and C are 45H and 3AH, respectively?
Answer
C. 45H at SP-1, 3 AH at SP-2
26
When interfacing an ADC to a microprocessor, the EOC signal indicates :
Answer
B. The ADC conversion is complete and data is available
27
If an analog multiplexer has 8 input channels (i.e., an 8-to-1 MUX), how many select
lines are required to choose one input at a time?
Answer
C. 3
28
Which of the following is true about the 8051’s timer/counter modules?
Answer
D. They can function either as timers (with internal clock) or as counters (with
external pulses)
29
Given that T̂ and Ŝ are two linear operators, which of the following statements
regarding these operators are correct :
Answer
A. The sum and product of T̂ and Ŝ are linear operators
30
Total angular momentum operator matrix jx , jy , jz , J 2 for an s electron is :
Answer
A. Hermitian but not unitary
31
Consider a particle of mass m in a one dimensional harmonic oscillator potential, the
ground state energy is shifted by an amount H ′ = −qEx by the application of a weak
electric field E along x direction, the first order change in energy levels is given by :
− qE qE
Answer
C. 0
32
For Klein Gordon equation, which of the following statements are correct :
Answer
D. All the above statements are correct
A 7 076/2025
33
Using the relativistic theory of Dirac for hydrogen atom, the phenomenon called Lamb
shift breaks the degeneracy between :
Answer
C. 2S 1 and 2P1
34
The correct representation of Weyl equation for the anti neutrino is (σ is Pauli spin matrix and α is Dirac matrix):
Answer
B. iℏ ∂ψ/∂t = −iℏc(σ·∇)ψ
35
In the case of weak field Zeeman effect in Hydrogen atom, for principle quantum number
n = 1 , the number of splitting and Zeeman contribution to energy are given by :
Answer
B. Zeeman splitting is 2 and Zeeman energy contribution is ± μ B B
36
Consider a first order phase transition, which of the following statements are true at
transition temperature :
Answer
D. Molar Gibbs function is continuous but molar heat capacity is discontinuous
37
Consider the free electrons in a metal as a fermion gas, if the specific volume of the
sample is increased by eight times, then the change in the Fermi energy (EF) and Fermi
temperature (TF) will be:
Answer
D. EF and TF is times the initial value
38
A system of N non-interacting and distinguishable particle of spin 1 is in thermodynamic
equilibrium. The entropy of the system is :
Answer
A. S = kB ln 3 N
39
A particle possess a Hamiltonian of H = + kq + αq 4 , which is moving in three
2m 2
dimension. The value of mean energy and molar specific heat capacity of the particle
when the constant α is zero is :
Answer
B. 3N A kBT and 3N A kB
40
Consider a system in thermal equilibrium with a heat bath at temperature T. If the energy of the system in Hamiltonian eigenstate |i⟩ is Eᵢ, then the density matrix ρ̂ is given by:
Answer
A. [Σᵢe^(−βEᵢ)|i⟩⟨i|]/Tr(e^(−βH))
41
Consider a system of particles with the average number of particles in a state with
1
energy ∈ is given by, n (∈) = −1 βc , where z is fugacity. In thermodynamic limit, for
z e −1
such a system when T ≤ Tc , which of the following statement is true :
Answer
A. z (T ) = 1 and μ = 0 and pressure independent of number density
42
Consider a system of d dimensional Fermi gas particles with following dispersion
relation ∈ ( p) = cps , and internal energy U, then the equation for pressure turns out to
be :
d *U sU
Answer
B. P=
Ld s Ld d
sU d *U
43
The semi empirical mass formula used to estimate the binding energy of the nucleus
include the following terms except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
The spin-orbit interaction in nuclei arises due to the coupling between the spin of the
particle and :
Answer
C. Orbital angular momentum
45
In which of the following element, the parity violation in beta decay was first observed?
Answer
A. Cobalt 60
46
The eight fold classification scheme is applied for :
Answer
D. Hadrons
47
According to Debye-Scherrer Formula, the broadening of X-ray diffraction pattern
implies :
Answer
A. Crystal Lattice imperfection
48
The number of quark types in standard model of particle physics :
Answer
D. 6
49
The reciprocal lattice of a bcc structure is :
Answer
B. FCC structure
50
The Miller indices of a plane parallel to z axis and cut intercepts of 2 and 3/2 along the
x and y axes respectively, is
Answer
D. (3 4 0)
51
If a, b, c are basis vectors and a * , b * and c * represent the reciprocal lattice vectors of
a crystal, then :
Answer
C. a * .c = 0
52
According to Weiss theory of ferromagnetism, the spontaneous magnetization arises
because of :
Answer
Question Cancelled
53
According to Debye’s model at highest temperature, the specific heat approaches :
Answer
C. 3R
54
High dielectric constant of a material is an indication of :
Answer
A. High capacitance
55
In ferro electric materials, the domain walls separate regions with :
Answer
D. Uniform electric polarization
56
In Superconductors, the energy gap is responsible for :
Answer
B. Zero resistance
57
The approximate values for rotational and centrifugal distortion constants for a diatomic
molecule are 10 cm–1 and 5 × 10–4 cm–1 respectively. The fundamental frequency of
vibration calculated by 5 persons is given in table. Who among them got the correct
answer?
Person Fundamental frequency
1 2800 cm–1
2 84 THz
3 1400 cm–1
4 8.4 × 1013 Hz
5 2800 Hz
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4
58
The normal modes of vibration of CO2 molecules are given. Determine the zero point
energy of CO2 molecule :
Symmetric Stretching 1330 cm–1
Symmetric bending 670 cm–1
Asymmetric Stretching 2350 cm–1
Answer
D. 0.3 eV
A 11 076/2025
59
Some statements may not associate with isomer shift. Find out :
(i) The nucleus of an atom is a point charge
(ii) Environments of emitting and absorbing nuclei are different
(iii) A direct function of s-electron density at the nucleus
(iv) Change in the oxidation state does not affect
Answer
C. both (i) and (iv)
60
A few statements regarding Raman Effect are given. Choose the best option :
(i) Raman Scattering is elastic
(ii) The wave number pattern and angular dependence of the stimulated Raman
scattering is different from normal Raman effect
(iii) A strong continuum covering the Stoke’s and anti-Stoke’s regions in which
absorption are expected for observing inverse Raman effect.
(iv) The Symmetric stretching mode of vibration of water is Raman active, but IR
inactive
Answer
B. (i) False (ii) True (iii) True (iv) False
61
Which among the following are the features of Deslandres table?
(i) A useful method to assign vibronic transitions in electronic spectroscopy.
(ii) The wave number separation of two successive vibrational levels is called sequence
(iii) The intensity of the lines is governed by Franck Condon principle
(iv) The bands in a particular column are called progressions.
(v) The bands in a particular row are called progressions.
Answer
B. All except (ii)
62
Find the strength of the magnetic field to give a precessional frequency of 100 MHz for
17O nucleus. Given the nuclear g factor = 0.6, nuclear magneton = 5 × 10–27 JT–1, Nuclear
spin = 5/2 :
Answer
A. 22 T
63
In a vibrating diatomic rotator :
(i) The rotational lines are more close together on R branch
(ii) P branch lines are more widely spaced
(iii) P branch lines are closer
(iv) R branch lines are widely separated
Choose the right option :
Answer
A. (i) and (ii) are correct
64
Choose the statements which are NOT suitable for KDP crystal :
(i) it is used for second harmonic generation
(ii) It is tetragonal
(iii) Negative uniaxial
(iv) Anisotropic
(v) Biaxial
(vi) Isotropic
Answer
A. Both (v) and (vi)
65
Match the following :
(i) Collision broadening
Answer
A. Gaussian lineshape
(ii) Doppler broadening
66
Choose the reasons for using heterojunction semiconductor laser :
(i) large threshold current density
(ii) better optical confinement
(iii) less carrier confinement
(iv) active region has lower bandgap
(v) active region has higher refractive Index
(vi) active region is very thin
Answer
B. all except (i) and (iii)
67
The main optical phenomenon used for preparing holograms :
Answer
D. interference
68
The refractive indices for core and cladding of an optical fiber are 1.5 and (2)1/2
respectively. Determine its numerical aperture and acceptance angle :
Answer
B. NA = 0.5 and acceptance angle = π / 6
69
A set of statements are given about optical fibers. Choose the right option :
(i) Multimode graded index fibers exhibit far less intermodal dispersion than
multimode step index fibers
(ii) The minimum core radius for multimode step index fiber is 50 μ m.
(iii) Skew rays pass through fiber axis.
(iv) Single mode step index fiber has low intermodal dispersion
Answer
C. (i)-True, (ii)-False, (iii)-False, (iv)-True
70
A 10 km optical fiber has 20 dB attenuation. If the output power measured is 1 μ W,
determine the input power :
Answer
B. 0.1 mW
71
Which type is most useful for setting personalised learning goals?
Answer
D. Ipsative
72
Which pair of aids would be effective in a mixed-ability classroom?
Answer
B. Educational Videos and Models
73
The primary objective of Reflective Teaching is to :
Answer
C. Encourage self-assessment and pedagogical improvement
74
Which learner characteristics is most crucial in applying Vygotsky’s concept of the Zone
of Proximal Development (ZPD)?
Answer
D. Level of Prior Knowledge
75
Match the following methods of teaching with their key features.:
(i) Lecture method
Answer
B. Student-centered critical thinking
(iii) Discussion method
76
Which ethical principle requires that participants are fully informed about the research
and voluntarily agree to participate?
Answer
D. Informed Consent
77
Which of the following is a key characteristic of research?
Answer
A. It follows a systematic and organized procedure
78
What is the primary purpose of conducting a literature review in the research process?
Answer
B. To identify gaps in existing knowledge and relevant theories
79
In a quasi-experimental design examining educational interventions, what is the
primary limitation compared to true experimental research?
Answer
B. Lack of random assignment
80
What is the primary advantage of mixed methods research in studying complex social
phenomena?
Answer
C. Triangulation of evidence
81
Consider the following statement(s) in respect of Anti-defection Law in India :
(i) The 10th schedule of the Constitution of India is about Anti -Defection Law.
(ii) The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to
the President who will take a decision on the advice of Election Commission.
(iii) All proceedings in relation to the disqualification under this Schedule are
considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the
case.
Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct?
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
82
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about GST Council?
(i) The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council
(ii) The Prime Minister of India is not a member of the GST Council
(iii) The Finance Secretary of the Government of India is a member of the GST Council
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
83
Which of the following statement(s) is /are true with reference to the Joint sitting of the
Parliament?
(i) According to Article 108, the President can make rules for the procedure of the
joint sitting after due consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and
the Speaker of the House of the People.
(ii) The President of India has the power to call a joint sitting
(iii) In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha, the joint
sitting of the Parliament is presided by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer
C. Only (ii)
84
Which statement(s) regarding the Estimates Committee is/ are True?
(i) The Estimates Committee is the Largest Committee of the Parliament
(ii) The term of the committee is Two years
(iii) Estimates committee consisting of members from both Houses of Parliament
Answer
C. Only (i)
85
Which of the following statements about Emergency provisions under the Constitution of
India is/are not correct?
(i) Proclamation of Emergency must be approved by the two houses of Parliament
with special majority within two months
(ii) Every resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency or its continuance must
be passed by either house of Parliament by a special majority
(iii) The 44th Amendment Act made the Declaration of National Emergency immune to
Judicial review.
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
Consider the statements given below :
(i) 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved Four subjects from the State List to the
Concurrent List.
(ii) Article 248 empowers the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the
State List in the national interest.
(iii) Establishment of standards of weight and measure is included in the Union List.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the 7th Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
Answer
D. Only (iii)
87
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Domestic Violence Act of 2005?
(i) Section 16 deals with Proceedings to be held in Camera
(ii) Section 3 deals with Definition of Domestic violence
(iii) Section 22 deals with the Duties and Functions of the Protection Officers
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
88
Which of the following statement(s) regarding Central Information Commission is /are
correct?
(i) The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, set up under Section 18
of the Right to Information Act in 2005
(ii) It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than Eight
Information Commissioners
(iii) Section 14 of the Right to Information Act 2005 deals with Removal of the Chief
Information Commissioner or Information Commissioners
Answer
C. Only (iii)
89
With reference to the sections of The Wildlife Protection Act 1972, consider the following
statements :
(i) National Board for Wildlife was constituted under Section 5A.
(ii) National Tiger Conservation Authority was constituted under section 38L.
(iii) Section 6 of the Act deals with Prohibition of hunting.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct about Wildlife Protection Act 1972?
Answer
B. Only (iii)
90
Consider the following statements regarding 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India :
(i) The 71st Amendment to the Indian Constitution included Konkani, Manipuri and
Nepali languages in the 8th Schedule.
(ii) The Sindhi language was added in the 8th Schedule by the 31st Amendment Act.
(iii) Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
A 17 076/2025
91
‘Devagita’ is a well-known Malayalam translation of Jayadev's “Geeta Govinda’’. Name
the poet who translated it into Malayalam :
Answer
D. Changampuzha Krishna Pillai
92
The author of the book entitled ‘Wonder that was India’ :
Answer
A. A.L. Basham
93
Three Language formula for education was proposed by :
Answer
A. Kothari commission
94
The Peasant uprising of Malabar was known as :
Answer
B. Mappila Rebellion
95
The Gayathri Mantra is the most reversed Vedic Mantra in Hinduism. Which Vedic Sage
is considered as the author of Gayathri Mantra?
Answer
A. Sage Viswamitra
96
Tinkathia system is associated with which one of the following movement?
Answer
A. Champaran Satyagraha
97
Who was Saradamani?
Answer
B. Wife of Rama Krishna Paramahamsa
98
Community development programme is implemented at the :
Answer
B. Block level
99
Which one of the following is wrongly listed with regard to Kanpur conspiracy case?
Answer
D. M.N. Roy
100
‘Hinduism dies if untouchability lives and untouchability has to die if Hinduism is to
live’. This was said by :
Answer
C. Gandhi
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