| Post Name | Higher Secondary School Teacher - (Psychology) |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Higher Secondary Education |
| Question Paper Code | 093/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 611/2025 |
| Date of Test | 12 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Posner and Raichle (1994) argued that _______involve automatic, reflexive processing that takes place even when the perceiver is passively regarding the information
Answer
C. Bottom-up processes
2
Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below. Assertion (A): Change blindness illustrates the top-down nature of perception quite compellingly. Reason (R): When different views of an object or scene is given, participants would experience an inability to detect changes to an object or scene. Codes:
Answer
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3
According to J Gibson (1979), perception consists of the direct acquisition of information from the environment which is known as _______.
Answer
D. Direct perception
4
The apparent distance hypothesis provides a good explanation of the
Answer
A. Moon illusion
5
The lowest level of stimulation that a person can consciously detect 50 percent of the time the stimulation is present is called
Answer
A. Absolute threshold
6
Which of the following best explains afterimages?
Answer
B. Opponent-process theory
7
In gate-control theory, substance P
Answer
A. Opens the spinal gates for pain
8
In the connectionist models, the information is stored as,
Answer
C. Distributed patterns across networks
9
The Working Memory Model includes;
Answer
B. Central executive and subsystems
10
The main focus of the Levels of Processing model of memory is;
Answer
B. Depth of processing
11
Functional fixedness, refers to:
Answer
B. Inability to use objects in new ways
12
According to Noam Chomsky, language acquisition is due to:
Answer
C. Innate mechanisms
13
Which neurotransmitter is most critically involved in synaptic plasticity and Long Term Potentiation?
Answer
C. Glutamate
14
A patient remembers past events but cannot form new memories. This condition is ;
Answer
B. Anterograde amnesia
15
The theory of creativity explains that the confluence of multiple factors distinguishes high creativity from modest creativity, rather than the possession of a distinctive trait or extremely high levels of any particular factor.
Answer
C. investment theory of creativity
16
Assertion (A): Golman (1915) “the abilities called here emotional intelligence which include self-control, zeal and persistence. and the ability to motivate oneself ’’ Reason (R): major areas of skills are knowing one’s emotions, managing emotions, motivating oneself, recognising emotions in others, and handling relationships.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
17
The ratio of mental and chronological age of children considered for intelligence by
Answer
D. William Stern
18
Gardner’s multiple intelligences consist of: (i) Linguistic, Logical-Mathematical, spatial, Musical (ii) Naturalist, Bodily-Kinaesthetic, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal (iii) Analytic, creative, practical, verbal (iv) Meta component, Performance component, Knowledge-acquisition component
Answer
B. Only (i and ii)
19
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Spearman concept of general intelligence and LL Thurston’s primary mental abilities (i) PMA support Spearman’s g- factor (ii) The PMA and g-factor observations paved the development of the CHC model (iii) The positive correlation between PMA demonstrated the presence of the g-factor (iv) Thurston used multiple factor analysis with 56 tests and derived the primary mental abilities.
Answer
A. All the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
20
Which among the following has been explaining the modularisation of brain activity and neuropsychological functions as its central theme? (i) Planning, Attention-arousal, simultaneous and successive process (ii) Greater brain size may cause greater intelligence, greater intelligence may cause greater brain size, or both may be dependent on some third factor (iii) Multiple intelligence theories believe that the brain has separate portions of the brain responsible for each of the intelligences. (iv) Neural conduction velocity explains intelligence
Answer
D. Only (i)
21
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Cattell Horn Caroll model of intelligence? (i) Crystallised and fluid intelligence (ii) 16 broad and 80 narrow abilities (iii) Psycho educational, achievement, and neuropsychological interpretation. (iv) Practical-mechanical and verbal-educational abilities
Answer
B. Only (i, ii and iii)
22
In the study of non-associative learning, what is the term for a progressive decrease in the strength of a response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly?
Answer
A. Habituation
23
Which of the following best described the concept of ''Stimulus Control'' in operant conditioning?
Answer
C. A behavior occurs more frequently in the presence of a specific discriminative stimulus.
24
According to the Opponent Process Theory of emotion, what happens to the secondary, corrective response (State B) after repeated exposure to an emotional stimulus?
Answer
C. It becomes faster to initiate and stronger in its intensity.
25
Assertion (A) : In Pavlov’s classical-conditioning framework, the conditioned stimulus (CS) functions as a surrogate for the unconditioned stimulus (US). Reason (R) : Pavlov adopted an S—S (stimulus-stimulus) view in which the CS acquires the capacity to elicit a response because it consistently signals the occurrence of the US.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
26
In the context of Insight Learning as described by Wolfgang Köhler, which characteristic distinguishes it from Thorndike’s ‘‘Trial and Error’’ learning?
Answer
B. The solution involves a sudden cognitive restructuring of the perceptual field.
27
Assertion (A) : Tolman’s purposive behaviourism is considered a decisive challenge to strict S-R or reflex-based behaviourism. Reason (R) : Tolman proposed that organisms form internal cognitive maps and respond on the basis of expectancies, so learning can occur without immediate reinforcement, as demonstrated by latent-learning and place-learning experiments in mazes.
Answer
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
28
Seligman’s theory of Learned Helplessness suggests that after repeated exposure to inescapable stressors, an organism develops a deficit In which domain?
Answer
D. The motivation to initiate responses to escape the trauma.
29
A person who engages in studying out of his interest in doing it demonstrates
Answer
D. Intrinsic motivation
30
The need for achievement, according to David McClelland's theory is characterized by
Answer
A. Seeking moderate challenges
31
The concept of 'cognitive map' was introduced by
Answer
B. Edward C. Tolman
32
Which theory of emotion best explains emotional experience as a combination of arousal and cognitive labelling?
Answer
B. Schachter-Singer theory
33
Assertion : Individuals with internal locus of control feel responsible for their life's outcomes. Reasoning : They believe that outcomes depend on external factors like luck.
Answer
C. (A) is true, (R) is false
34
Assertion : Moderate level of arousal/anxiety can improve performance before an examination. Reasoning : Very low arousal can result in lack of motivation and reduced attention.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
35
A person listens to music while studying because complete silence makes them feel bored and distracted. This behaviour is best explained by
Answer
C. Arousal theory
36
Match the research method with its primary characteristic: List I (Method) List II (Characteristic) A. Case Study 1. Study of cultural patterns B. Ethnography 2. Focus on lived experience C. Historical Research 3. In-depth analysis of a single unit D. Phenomenology 4. Analysis of past events
Answer
D. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
37
Which statement best explains the purpose of ‘Reliability’ in psychometry?
Answer
D. It Indicates the consistency and stability of test scores across time or forms.
38
Identify the correct statement(s) regarding ‘Scales of Measurement : I. Nominal scales allow for the calculation of the mean. II. Ordinal scales provide information about the magnitude of difference. III. Interval scales possess an arbitrary zero point. IV. Ratio scales permit the use of all statistical operations.
Answer
C. III and IV
39
Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning ‘Experimental Designs’:
Answer
C. Quasi-experimental designs offer the same level of internal validity as true experiments.
40
When selecting a sampler, what is the primary advantage of ‘Stratified Random Sampling’ over ‘Simple Random Sampling’?
Answer
B. It ensures that specific subgroups are proportionally represented.
41
A researcher observes that scores on a new test of emotional intelligence correlate .70 with a test of general intelligence, but only 30 with a measure of peer-rated emotional regulation. This result is most problematic for which type of validity?
Answer
A. Construct validity, specifically divergent validity.
42
Regarding ‘Analysis of Variance’ (ANOVA), which statement is correct?
Answer
B. It tests the null hypothesis that all group population means are equal.
43
Match the following : (i) The study of the statistical differences among large groups of subjects (a) Projective test (ii) A detailed history of an individual that contains data from a variety of sources (b) Reliability (iii) A personality assessment device in which subjects are presumed to project personal needs, (c) Nomothetic fears and values onto their interpretation or descriptive of an ambiguous stimulus research (iv) The consistency of response to a psychological assessment device (d) Case study Choose the correct response :
Answer
C. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
44
Match the following : (i) Altering or displacing id impulses by diverting instinctual energy into socially acceptable (a) Projection behaviour (ii) Attributing a disturbing impulse to someone else (b) Rationalization (iii) Reinterpreting behaviour to make it more acceptable and less threatening (c) Sublimation (iv) Expressing an id impulse that is the opposite of the one truly driving the person (d) Reaction formation Choose the correct response :
Answer
A. (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
45
Famine aspect of the male psyche; masculine aspect of the female psyche is ________
Answer
C. Anima archetype
46
Early recollections are ''the most satisfactory single indicators of lifestyle''. This view is associated with _________
Answer
B. Adler
47
Concept of Bask anxiety and neurotic needs are associated with ____________
Answer
D. Horney
48
The influence of the environment and past events on the current activation of a need is ________
Answer
B. Press
49
Match the following : (i) ''Psychic'' component of the mind (citta) (a) Purusa (ii) Pure consciousness, principle behind consciousness manifesting in the person (b) Prakri (iii) Material basis of the universe; primordial matrix of matter (c) Ahamkare (iv) Ego, the empirical self (d) Buddhi Choose the correct response :
Answer
A. (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
50
According to Kelley’s Attribution Theory, which pattern of covariation information most decisively supports an internal attribution?
Answer
C. Low consensus, low distinctiveness, high consistency
51
The degree to which individuals evaluate themselves positively or negatively, reflecting their overall attitude toward the self, and measurable through both conscious reports and indirect methods is best defined as
Answer
B. Self-esteem
52
To examine how individuals form impressions, participants were presented with trait lists describing a stranger. Two groups received identical lists except for one trait Group 1 : Intelligent, skillful, warm, determined, practical, cautious Group 2 : Intelligent, skillful, cold, determined, practical, cautious Participants formed markedly different impressions of the target person. Which conclusion is most consistent with Solomon Asch’s research findings?
Answer
B. Certain traits act as central traits that reorganize the meaning of other characteristics
53
Which statement correctly distinguishes stereotype, prejudice, and discrimination?
Answer
B. Stereotype refers to beliefs, prejudice to feelings, and discrimination to actions
54
Which of the following is not helpful in reducing prejudice?
Answer
C. Reinforcing rigid in-group versus out-group distinctions
55
An internal state that arises when individuals perceive inconsistency between two or more attitudes, or between their attitudes and their bchaviour, is best described as:
Answer
D. Cognitive dissonance
56
In the context of Stanley Milgram studies on destructive obedience, which of the following conditions are least likely to increase obedience to authority? I. People in authority assume responsibility for outcomes II. Presence of visible signs of authority and power III. Increased opportunity for reflection and systematic thought IV. Rapid pace of events limiting time for critical evaluation
Answer
B. Only III
57
A patient insists that television anchors are sending them personal messages. This symptom is most accurately classified as:
Answer
D. Referential delusion
58
During MSE, a patient gives excessive, unnecessary detail but eventually reaches the point. This is termed:
Answer
B. Circumstantiality
59
Which symptom is considered a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Answer
D. Avolition
60
A person assigned male at birth persistently identifies as female and seeks gender-affirming treatment but reports no distress. What is the most accurate clinical interpretation?
Answer
C. No mental disorder diagnosis
61
A patient develops tremors, sweating, and agitation after stopping alcohol use. This is best described as:
Answer
A. Alcohol withdrawal
62
A patient has severe anterograde amnesia but intact procedural memory after chronic alcohol use. Which condition is most consistent?
Answer
B. Korsakoff Syndrome
63
In retrograde amnesia which type of memory is typically least affected?
Answer
C. Procedural memory
64
Training on protection against sexual harassment is primarily intended to:
Answer
B. Ensure legal compliance and safe workplace environment
65
The use of DNA fingerprinting in forensic psychology primarily aids in:
Answer
B. Establishing biological identity with high precision
66
Decisive Discipline primarily focuses on:
Answer
D. Clear rules and consistent consequences
67
Crisis intervention is most appropriate when:
Answer
C. An individual is in an acute psychological emergency
68
Systematic desensitization is based on the principle of:
Answer
D. Classical conditioning and counter conditioning
69
In grief counselling, a client oscillates between denial and anger over a prolonged period. According to stage-based models, this pattern suggests:
Answer
A. Non-linear and individualised grieving process
70
Which coping strategy is most effective in uncontrollable stress situations (e.g., terminal illness)?
Answer
B. Emotion-focused coping
71
Read the following statements regarding the objectives of teaching at the reflective level: I. It implies active, self-regulated, and critical thinking on the part of the students. II. The teacher’s role is highly dominant and authoritarian. III. Problem-solving and independent inquiry are key components of this level. IV. It focuses on recalling foundational factual information. Which of the statements given above are correct about the objectives of teaching at the reflective level?
Answer
B. I and III only
72
An educator selects the ‘Heuristic Method’ of teaching, he/she primarily expects the learners to: I. Passively receive step-by-step instructions for better understanding. II. Act as discoverers and independent problem solvers. III. Learn primarily through lecture, dictation, and repetition. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. II only
73
Under the DIKSHA initiative by the Ministry of Education, teaching aids are primarily provided in which format to support blended learning?
Answer
C. Content, interactive quizzes, and energized textbooks featuring QR codes.
74
As per the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the proposed shift in the evaluation system aims to move away from high-stakes rote learning towards: I. Competency-based assessment. II. Summative - only standardized board exams across all grades. III. A 360-degree multidimensional holistic report card. IV. Establishing PARAKH as a standard-setting body for student’s holistic assessment. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. I, III and IV only
75
Which of the following are widely recognized characteristics of adult learners (Andragogy) as opposed to young learners (Pedagogy)? I. They are generally self-directed and autonomous in their learning. II. They rely entirely on the instructor to dictate their learning goals and schedules. III. They bring a rich reservoir of prior life experience that serves as a resource for learning. IV. They are exclusively motivated by external rewards rather than internal drivers. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
A. I and III only
76
Read the following statements regarding ‘Action Research’: I. It aims to solve an immediate, localized problem. II. Its findings are intended to be universally generalizable to all populations. III. It typically follows a cyclic process of Plan, Act, Observe, and Reflect. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. I and III only
77
Arrange the steps of the research process in the correct logical sequence: 1. Formulating the Hypothesis 2. Defining the Research Problem 3. Data Collection and Analysis 4. Developing the Research Design Correct Sequence:
Answer
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
78
An academic event where educators gather in small groups for an interactive, hands-on session to actively develop specific tools-such as creating thematic lesson plans or designing early numeracy worksheets - is best described as a
Answer
C. Workshop
79
According to the University Grants Commission (UGC) guidelines on academic integrity, the ethical violation of ‘Falsification’ in research refers to:
Answer
C. Manipulating research materials, equipment, or changing/omitting data such that the research is not accurately represented
80
Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a ‘Reference list’ from a ‘Bibliography’ in thesis writing? I. A reference list includes only the sources that have been explicitly cited within the text of the thesis. II. A bibliography includes all background literature and materials consulted during the research, even if not directly cited in the text. III. Both terms represent the exact same concept and can be used interchangeably in APA formatting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
C. I and II only
81
Which of the following statements about the Chief Information Commissioner are correct? i. Appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of Union Cabinet ii. Shall not be a Member of Parliament or State Legislature iii. Hold office for 6 years iv. Shall not be eligible for reappointment after retirement
Answer
B. Only (ii & iv)
82
Which of the following are correct regarding The National Biodiversity Authority? i. A statutory body established in 2003 ii. Chairperson is appointed by the President of India iii. Headquarters located in Chennai
Answer
A. Only (i & iii)
83
Which of the following employment generation schemes are under the Ministry of Labour and Employment? i. Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana ii. Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protesahan Yojana iii. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan iv. National Career Service Project
Answer
C. Only (i, ii & iv)
84
Who among the following are the members of the National Human Rights Commission? i. Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes ii. Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities iii. Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii & iii)
85
Regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court which of the following statements are correct? i. Under Article 143 of the Constitution ii. Only on any question of law or fact which has arisen iii. The opinion is not binding on the President
Answer
A. Only (i & iii)
86
The Preamble of the Constitution of India states that "we the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a ________ i. Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic ii. Justice; social, economic and political iii. Liberty of thought, expression, faith, belief and worship Which of the above statements are correct according to their sequence as per the Constitution?
Answer
C. Only (i & ii)
87
Which of the following conditions have to be fulfilled while making amendment to Article 54 of the Indian Constitution? i. A bill for the purpose must be passed in each house of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that house. ii. By a majority of not less than two-third of the members of each -house present and voting. iii. The bill should be ratified by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii & iii)
88
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the money bill i. The Speaker decides whether a bill is money bill or not ii. Introduced only in the House of People iii. The bill after passing in the house of people is sent to the council of states for recommendation iv. The council of states has to return the bill within three weeks from its receipt to the other house.
Answer
B. Only (i, ii & iii)
89
Which among the following are the taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to states? i. Stamp duties ii. Taxes on railway fares and freights iii. Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce iv. Taxes on mineral rights.
Answer
C. Only (ii & iii)
90
Which of the following statements are true regarding the office of the Vice-President of India? i. ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha ii. Elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament iii. Should not be a member of Parliament or any state legislatures. iv. Elected for a term of six years
Answer
A. Only (i & iii)
91
Where and when did T.K. Madhavan meet Mahatma Gandhi?
Answer
C. 1921, Tirunelveli
92
Who is the first London missionary society's missionary to India?
Answer
A. Nathanael forsyth
93
When did the society for the propagation of Gospel form?
Answer
C. 1701
94
'I would ask you to drop temple-entry now and begin with public wells'. Who said to whom?
Answer
B. Gandhiji to T.K. Madhavan
95
William Logan is associated with
Answer
C. Malabar manual
96
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri? i Akkitham wrote Idinju Polinja Lokam ii. Akkitham is the author of Bashpanjali iii. Akkitham is the recipient of Jnanapith award
Answer
B. only i & iii
97
Who is the author of 'Ithu Bhoomiyanu'?
Answer
D. K.T. Muhammed
98
Who was blinded during the Vaikom Sathyagraha?
Answer
A. Raman Ilayat
99
Who is the author of 'Ethiru'?
Answer
D. M. Kunjaman
100
Who delivered the Muthukulam speech of 1947?
Answer
A. Mannathu Padmanabhan
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