| Post Name | Higher Secondary School Teacher(Junior) - Political Science |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Higher Secondary Education |
| Question Paper Code | 097/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 714/2025 |
| Date of Test | 14 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
According to the Cabinet Mission Plan, which of the following was the method of electing the Constituent Assembly:
Answer
D. Partly elected by the Provincial Assemblies and partly nominated by the Princes.
2
Which of the following is / are among the Directive Principles of State Policy? (i) The state shall strive to promote science and technology for development (ii) The state shall endeavor to secure for citizens a uniform civil code throughout India. (iii) The state shall try to develop population policy and family planning programs.
Answer
C. Only (ii)
3
Which of the following Committees / Commissions made recommendations about the Center State Relations? (i) Rajamannar Committee (ii) Sarkaria Commission (iii) Tarkunde Committee
Answer
B. Only (i & ii)
4
Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by:
Answer
A. Proclamation of National Emergency.
5
Which of the following Federal principles are found in the Indian Constitution? (i) Equal representation of States in the Second House of Parliament. (ii) Bi-cameral Legislature at federal level. (iii) Independent and impartial Judiciary.
Answer
C. Only (ii & iii)
6
86th Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following?
Answer
C. Insertion of Article 21 A related with free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 to 14 years.
7
The area of a Lok Sabha constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the:
Answer
A. Delimitation Commission
8
73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India provides for:
Answer
D. Three tiers of Panchayati Raj Insitutions at the village, block and district levels
9
The Liberal thinkers of the 19th century considered State as:
Answer
B. A necessary evil.
10
Which of the following is not an input function of Political System?
Answer
C. Rule adjudication
11
Marxism believes that:
Answer
B. Social relations are rooted in the material conditions
12
Which of the following is not related to political participation?
Answer
D. Paying taxes
13
The main functions of State according to the pluralist is to:
Answer
B. Harmonies the rights and activities of various groups and associations
14
The Credo of Relevance refers to:
Answer
C. The major traits of post-behaviouralism
15
Then power is backed with legitimacy, it leads to:
Answer
A. Authority
16
A participant political culture is characterized by:
Answer
B. Citizens pay close attention to politics, and regard popular participation as both desirable and effective.
17
Assertion (A) : Hobbes justifies absolute sovereignty to avoid anarchy. Reason (R) Humans in the state of nature are rational and cooperative.
Answer
C. (A) true, (R) false
18
A constitution limiting state power to protect rights aligns most with:
Answer
B. Locke
19
Assertion (A) : Hegel views the state as the realization of ethical life. Reason (R) : Individual freedom exists outside the state.
Answer
C. (A) true, (R) false
20
Assertion (A) : Marx predicted revolution in advanced capitalist societies. Reason (R) : Class consciousness develops automatically.
Answer
C. (A) true, (R) false
21
Mill’s harm principle primarily restricts:
Answer
B. State authority
22
Which statements reflect Rousseau’s theory? (i) Sovereignty lies with the people (ii) General will promotes common good (iii) Representation fully captures general will
Answer
A. Only (i) & (ii)
23
Gramsci differs from Marx mainly by emphasizing:
Answer
B. Culture over coercion
24
Match the following: Concept Thinker (i) Positive liberty (a) Bentham (ii) Felicific calculus (b) T.H. Green (iii) Dialectic (c) Hegel
Answer
A. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
25
Parliamentary system includes: (i) Fusion of powers (ii) Collective responsibility (iii) Fixed tenure
Answer
A. Only (i) & (ii)
26
Political parties primarily perform:
Answer
B. Interest aggregation
27
Assertion(A): Corporatist states integrate interest groups into governance. Reason(R): They allow unrestricted competition among groups.
Answer
C. (A) true, (R) false
28
Judicial independence ensures: (i) Fair trials (ii) Rule of law (iii) Executive dominance
Answer
A. Only (i) & (ii)
29
Federalism primarily ensures:
Answer
B. Division of powers
30
A political system where interest groups are officially recognised and regulated by the state reflects:
Answer
B. Corporatism
31
A directly elected executive independent of legislature indicates:
Answer
B. Presidential system
32
Which type of representation allows representatives to act according to their own judgment?
Answer
B. Trustee
33
Which among the following statement/statements are true with regard to ‘realism’ in international politics? (i) Realism maintains that universal moral principles can be applied to the actions of states (ii) Realists emphasize the constraints on politics imposed by human selfishness (iii) Realism is a theoretical account of how the world operates (iv) Realism suggest that 'the social world (is) but a projection of human nature onto the collective plane’
Answer
D. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
34
Which among the following is not a cold war event?
Answer
B. War on Terror
35
Who wrote the book ‘The Agent-Structure Problem in International Relations Theory’?
Answer
C. Alexander Wendt
36
In foreign policy ‘incrementalism’ means
Answer
A. Decisions are made through small adjustments dictated by changing circumstances
37
Identify the right statement/statements about ‘immunity of diplomats’ from the list given below (i) Governments extend special privileges to ad hoc envoys because of international legal obligation. (ii) The premises of the mission is inviolable (iii) The official correspondence of the mission is inviolable (iv) The receiving state had a special duty to protect the residence and mission
Answer
B. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
38
The first case that was submitted to the International Court of Justice (ICJ) was-
Answer
C. Concerning the incidents in the Corfu Channel
39
In which year Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit was held in?
Answer
C. 1992
40
‘The Uniting for Peace’ Resolution of UN general assembly stands for?
Answer
A. Collective Security
41
Identify the right statement/statements regarding legal rational bureaucracy designed by Max Weber (i) Official business is conducted on a continuous basis. (ii) Administration is conducted on the basis of written documents (iii) The officials own the resources necessary for rendering duties (iv) Lower officials have no right to appeal
Answer
C. (i) & (ii)
42
Match list A with list B and find out the correct pairs (i) The Age of Discontinuity Guidelines for Our Changing Society (a) F. W. Riggs (ii) The theory of Social and Economic Organisations (b) Max Weber (iii) General and Industrial Management (c) Henry Fayol (iv) Prismatic society revisited (d) Peter Ferdinand Drucker
Answer
B. (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
43
Whom among the following is not an advocate of New Public Management?
Answer
C. Woodrow Wilson
44
Identify the factors that contributed for the development of Comparative Public Administration (i) The rise of behavioural approach in public administration (ii) The emergence of newly free third world countries (iii) New Scientific, theoretical and technological developments (iv) Dissatisfaction on the methods of new public service approach
Answer
A. (i), (ii) & (iii)
45
Arrange the following events in chronological order (Past to present) (i) Public Administration as a discipline (ii) Fayol’s scientific management (iii) Hegelian organic state philosophy (iv) Weber’ s theory of bureaucracy
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
What does public choice theory suggest to attain efficiency?
Answer
A. By constraining government growth
47
The term committed bureaucracy means
Answer
A. Bureaucracy committed to the party in power
48
Which among the following is not an indicator of good governance?
Answer
C. Formalism
49
Match the following philosopher with their respective concept : Philosopher Concept (i) MN Roy (a) Sarvodaya (ii) Dr. B. R Ambedkar (b) Wheel of History (iii) Ram Manohar Lohia (c) Radical humanism (iv) M.K Gandhi (d) Mook Nayak
Answer
C. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
50
In the light of the thoughts of Bala Gangadhar Thilak, which among the following statements are not correct? (i) Physiological bonds make a person fragile, so he proclaimed to break. (ii) the unity that a particular language provides to the people of region had to be strengthened (iii) Tilak maintained that historical legacies and linguistic and religious unity were sufficient bases on nationalism.
Answer
D. (i) and (iii)
51
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution and ideological shifts within the Brahmo Samaj during the 19th century: Statement I : Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin (A Gift to Monotheists) argued that the core of all religions is a rational belief in a single Deity, positioning Brahmoism as a universalist rather than a sectarian movement. Statement II The first major schism in 1866 was primarily triggered by Debendranath Tagore’s insistence on introducing radical Christian-inspired rituals, which Keshub : Chandra Sen opposed in favour of maintaining “pure’’ Vedantic traditions. Statement III The Sadharan Brahmo Samaj, formed after the second schism (1878), moved toward a more democratic administrative structure, moving away from the : “providential dictation” or authoritarian leadership style of Keshub Chandra Sen. Statement The Brahmo Samaj’s influence remained largely confined to the urban Bhadralok (intelligentsia) of Bengal and failed to create a significant legislative IV : impact on marriage laws in British India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. I and III only
52
Consider the following statements connected to Vivekanandha (i) Practical Vedanta and service to humanity. (ii) Spirituality should be divorced from social action. (iii) Represented Hinduism at the Parliament of Religions in Chicago (1893) Which of the statements are correct?
Answer
A. (i) and (iii) only
53
Assertion (A): Lohia argued that both capitalism and communism are part of the same civilizational framework. Reason (R): Both systems prioritize continuous technological expansion and rising material consumption as markers of progress. Options :
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
54
‘In his endeavour to transcend the deceptions and the iron laws of history he made each of us aware of the innermost laws of our own being.’ These statement of Nirmal Verma is about?
Answer
C. Jayaprakash Narayan
55
Consider the following statements: (i) Gopal Krishna Gokhale believed in gradual constitutional reforms, whereas Bal Gangadhar Tilak advocated immediate Swaraj. (ii) Gokhale supported passive resistance as a primary method, while Tilak opposed it. (iii) Tilak believed political rights must be asserted through mass mobilization, unlike Gokhale’s reliance on petitions. Which of the statements are correct?
Answer
A. (i) and (iii) only
56
Match the abbreviations of UN Peace keeping missions with their expanded names : Abbreviations Expanded name (i) UNMIK (a) United Nations Mission in Liberia (ii) MINUSTAH (b) UN Organization Mission in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (iii) MONUC (c) UN Interim Administration Mission in Kosovo (iv) UNMIL (d) United Nations stabilization Mission in Haiti
Answer
B. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
57
SAARC’s objective of “increasing cooperation among member-states to protect regional interests in international bodies” primarily relates to:
Answer
C. Collective bargaining in global governance
58
Consider the following features of reformist ecology: (i) Emphasis on sustainable development (ii) Rejection of anthropocentrism (iii) Compatibility with capitalist economic structures (iv) Focus on balancing modernization and environmental protection Which of the above are correct?
Answer
A. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
59
The term ‘bipolarity’ during the Cold War period refers to:
Answer
B. Existence of two dominant and opposing centers of power
60
Which of the following best describes Japan’s post-Wsar foreign policy orientation?
Answer
C. Alliance-based security dependence on the United States
61
Consider the following statements: (i) The Japan-US Security Treaty (1951) was signed immediately after Japan regained full sovereignty. (ii) The 1960 revised treaty expanded mutual obligations for defense cooperation between Japan and the USA. (iii) The 1951 treaty made Japan fully responsible for its external security without foreign assistance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
A. (ii) only
62
Arrange the following ASEAN bodies in correct hierarchical order (top to bottom) : (i) ASEAN Economic Ministers (AEM) (ii) ASEAN Heads of Government (AHG) (iii) ASEAN Ministerial Meeting (AMM) Select the correct answer :
Answer
A. (ii) ® (iii) ® (i)
63
Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
Answer
B. Jordan
64
The Kerala Agrarian Relations Bill (1957) introduced by the first State government of Kerala entailed provisions for: (i) Anti-eviction (ii) Ownership of leased land for cultivating tenants (iii) Transfer of land to family (iv) Land ceiling and surplus redistribution
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
65
Which of the following statements accurately captures ‘The Kerala Model of Development’?
Answer
C. A model of high social development without commensurate economic development
66
Consider the following statements: (i) William Tobias Ringeltaube, the pioneer missionary of the London Missionary Society began his work in South Travancore in 1806. (ii) The first missionary of the Church Missionary Society arrived in Alleppey in1816. (iii) The first Missionary of the Basel Evangelical Missionary Society in Malabar arrived in 1820. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
67
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order. (i) Guruvayur Satyagraha (ii) Paliyam Satyagraha (iii) Temple Entry Proclamation in Travancore (iv) Vaikom Satyagraha
Answer
B. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
68
Consider the following statements: (i) The Silent Valley Movement aimed to protect the tropical evergreen forest in Kerala from a hydroelectric project. (ii) This region is a part of the Western Ghats, is rich in biodiversity and home to endangered species like the lion-tailed macaque. (iii) Kerala Sastra Sahitya Parishad played a major role in the Silent Valley Environmental campaign. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
69
Consider the following statements regarding the first democratically elected Communist government in Kerala (1957) : (i) The Communist Party of India (CPI) won an absolute majority on its own by crossing the 64-seat mark in the 126-member assembly. (ii) The ministry was dismissed by the President in 1959 under Article 356 following the Vimochana Samaram (Liberation Struggle). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. (ii) only
70
Which of the following statements is correct? (i) The Ashok Mehta committee recommended the adoption of a 3-tier Panchayati Raj structure at the state level throughout the country. (ii) The recommendations of the Balwant Rai Committee were accepted by the National Development Council in July 1958. (iii) L M Singhvi Committee is also known as “Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development”.
Answer
A. (iii) only
71
Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of teaching and learning? (i) Teaching is a facilitative process that promotes meaningful learning rather than mere transmission of information. (ii) Learning is always dependent on teaching and cannot occur independently. (iii) Teaching-learning is an interactive and dynamic process involving teacher, learner, and content. (iv) Learning involves active construction of knowledge by the learner. (v) Teaching is primarily examination-oriented and focuses on content completion.
Answer
A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
72
Assertion (A) Continuous evaluation enhances the quality of learning by promoting deeper understanding among : learners. Reason (R) : Continuous evaluation reduces examination stress by distributing assessment over time.
Answer
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
73
A teacher wants students to connect theory with real-life situations. Which method is best?
Answer
D. Project Method
74
Which of the following tools is NOT suitable for measuring attitudes?
Answer
C. Achievement test
75
Which of the following statements best explain the importance of teaching aids in the teaching-learning process? (i) It organizes teaching based on the maxims of teaching. (ii) It increases verbalism. (iii) It provides a good substitute for direct experience (iv) It does not cater to individual differences
Answer
D. (i) and (iii)
76
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Basic research aims at theory development without immediate application. (ii) Applied research always rejects theoretical frameworks. (iii) Action research focuses on solving immediate classroom problems. (iv) Exploratory research is conducted when the problem is clearly defined.
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) only
77
Assertion (A): Descriptive research cannot establish cause-and-effect relationships. Reason (R): Descriptive research focuses on describing characteristics of a phenomenon without manipulation of variables.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of (A)
78
A postgraduate student is finalizing her thesis. She places the table of contents, list of figures, and bibliography at the end of the document after the conclusion chapter. Based on standard thesis formatting guidelines, which of the following best evaluates her work?
Answer
B. Only the bibliography is correctly placed; others should be in preliminary pages
79
When a researcher studies the socio-cultural life of a particular tribe, which perspective should they use to ensure the data is more reliable and authentic?
Answer
C. Emic perspective
80
A researcher is designing a large-scale mixed-method study on digital learning outcomes across multiple universities. Before launching the full study, she conducts a small trial to evaluate instrument clarity, sampling logistics, time constraints, and potential response biases. Which of the following techniques is she MOST appropriately using?
Answer
D. Pilot study
81
Which one of the statements is true with reference to Nizhalthankals founded by Vaikunda Swamikal? (i) An institution to feed the poor and the hungry (ii) An institution for the cause of Dharma Paripalanam (iii) An institution for worship
Answer
D. All of the above
82
Sadhujan Dootan a magazine,which criticized the evils of caste system was started by
Answer
C. Pampadi John Joseph
83
“To walk through the public road is one that even dogs and pigs enjoy everywhere without having to offer any satyagraha at all” Name the person who made this statement
Answer
C. Dr. Palpu
84
The author of Atmahuti, a work that attacked the dowry system among Nambutiris was
Answer
D. M.B. Nambutiripad
85
The Missionary Society that started the Fort Girls’ Mission School in 1864 in Trivandrum
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
The Newspaper that published for the first time Asan's Veena Poovu
Answer
B. Mithavadi
87
Which of the following statements are true regarding Vaikom satyagraha? (i) It was part of the movement for civic rights for freedom to walk through roads surrounding temples (ii) It was a movement launched for entry to Mahadeva temple at Vaikom (iii) It was an anti — untouchability movement supported by Gandhiji (iv) It was led by T K Madhavan
Answer
C. Only (i, iii & iv)
88
The first woman advocate of Tiruvitamkur was
Answer
B. Anna Chandi
89
Sahitya Manjari was the work of
Answer
D. Vallathol Narayana Menon
90
Name the personality who suggested the name Manorama for the Malayala Manorama paper
Answer
C. Kerala Varma Valiya Koyi Thampuran
91
Which of the following statements are correct about Poikayil Kumara Gurudevan? (i) He was born at Eraviperoor in Thiruvalla. (ii) He led an Anti-War March during the First World War. (iii) He was a member of Sreemoolam Praja Sabha twice.
Answer
C. All are correct
92
The poem Puralimalayile Poomarangal written by P Kunhiraman Nair is about the life of
Answer
A. Pazhassi Raja
93
Famous music composition ‘Entaro Mahanubhavulu’ was composed by Tyagaraja Swamikal in praise of which musician from 3 Travancore?
Answer
B. Shadkala Govinda Marar
94
Among the following women freedom fighters, who was associated with the organisation of Desasevika Sangh?
Answer
C. Akkamma Cheriyan
95
The first educational quarterly journal in Malayalam- Vidyasamgraham- was published by
Answer
D. CMS College, Kottayam
96
Which of the following statements regarding the Abstention Movement is incorrect?
Answer
A. It began in 1930, as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
97
India’s first national multi-sport event for tribal athletes- Khelo India Tribal Games of 2026- was hosted by
Answer
A. Chhattisgarh
98
The official toll-free number of Census 2027 is
Answer
C. 1855
99
Which of the following combinations is incorrectly matched with regard to 71st National Film Awards?
Answer
A. Best Actor - Rishab Shetty
100
The spacecraft which carried astronauts around the Moon during the Artemis II Program in April 2026?
Answer
C. Orion
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