| Post Name | Higher Secondary School Teacher(Junior) - Zoology |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Higher Secondary Education |
| Question Paper Code | 107/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 717/2025 |
| Date of Test | 21 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The below given deļ¬nition by Davis and Heywood (1963) "Assemblage of individuals with morphological features in common and separable from other such assemblages by correlated morphological discontinuities in a number of features" is pointing best to _____________.
Answer
C. Morphological species
2
Choose the correct sequence of eras from the below given sets
Answer
B. Archeozoic-Proterozoic-Paleozoic-Mesozoic
3
What is considered as raw materials for evolution?
Answer
D. Mutations
4
Choose the correct statement from the below given 4 statements
Answer
A. Cladogenesis is also known as phylogenetic branching
5
Choose the correct statements from the below given statements
Answer
A. Maximum Likelihood estimation is a statistical method based on probability distribution and is developed by Ronald A. Fisher
6
Ellis-van Creveld Syndrome (EVC) which is also known as Chondro- ectodermal dysplasia is most commonly observed in populations with ______________.
Answer
D. Founder Eļ¬ect
7
Choose the correct statement that describes the term Syntype
Answer
B. Syntypes are specimens of a type series that collectively constitute the name-bearing type
8
Choose the name of the scientist mostly associated with the concept of Punctuated Equilibrium
Answer
D. Stephen Jay Gould
9
In which mammalian order are the cetaceans included?
Answer
A. Artiodactyla
10
The region of mitochondrial DNA of vertebrates that is principally used to identify vertebrate species is one among the four options given below - Choose the correct one:
Answer
B. Cytochrome C Oxidase subunit I gene (COI)
11
Hyperpolarization in a neuron occurs as a result of
Answer
B. Delay in closing of potassium channels
12
Which one of the following statements is not true about the digestive process?
Answer
C. Chief cells of gastric glands secrete gastrin
13
The pacemaker potential of the S.A. node results from
Answer
B. Slow inļ¬ow of sodium ions
14
Which metabolic reaction occurs in the mitochondrial matrix?
Answer
B. Citric acid cycle
15
Renin is secreted by
Answer
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
16
Which of the following is an action of Insulin?
Answer
B. Promotes the uptake of glucose from the blood into cells
17
During muscle contraction, ATP binds to
Answer
D. Myosin
18
Which of the following statements is not true about enzyme activity?
Answer
D. Isozymes catalyse diļ¬erent reactions, but have the same kinetic properties
19
The primary rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is
Answer
C. Phosphofructokinase
20
Which one of the following statements is true about carbohydrates?
Answer
C. Chitin is a homopolymer of N-acetylglucosamine
21
Which of the following is true about Gram-negative bacteria?
Answer
C. Contains an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides
22
Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphoid organ?
Answer
A. Bone marrow
23
Which immunoglobulin class is involved in allergic reactions?
Answer
B. IgE
24
Which MHC class molecule primarily presents endogenous antigens to cytotoxic T cells?
Answer
A. MHC Class I
25
The classical pathway of complement activation is triggered by
Answer
C. Antigen-antibody complexes
26
Autoimmune diseases result from
Answer
B. Failure to recognize self-antigens leading to immune attack on own tissues
27
Which of the following best describes the role of adjuvants in vaccines?
Answer
B. Enhance immune response to an antigen
28
A small molecule that cannot induce an immune response on its own but becomes immunogenic when attached to a carrier protein is called
Answer
C. Hapten
29
What is the speciļ¬c function of Iodine in the Gram staining procedure?
Answer
D. Mordant
30
Secreted IgM exists in the blood as a
Answer
D. Pentamer
31
The Sodium-Potassium pump: i. Moves 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ into the cell ii. Generates a net outward positive current iii. Moves 2 Na+ out and 3 K+ into the cell iv. Moves 3 Na+ out and 1 K+ into the cell
Answer
A. i and ii
32
Which experimental observation provided the strongest evidence against the Davson-Danielli model?
Answer
C. Freeze-fracture electron microscopy
33
Which of the following statements about rRNA is True? i. rRNA is the most abundant type of RNA ii. rRNA is only found in the nucleus iii. rRNA has no catalytic function iv. rRNA is synthesized in the nucleolus
Answer
B. i and iv
34
Order the stages of cellular respiration from start to ļ¬nish?
Answer
A. Glycolysis Pyruvate oxidation Krebs cycle Electron transport chain
35
Which of the following statements best explain the Pribnow box? i. Conserved at the 10 position in bacterial promoters ii. It is a sequene of TATATAAT of eight nucleotides iii. Sequence is recognized by the sigma ( )factor iv. Sequence is recognized by DNA polymerase
Answer
B. i and iii
36
Approximately what percentage of the human genome is made up of LINE-1 elements?
Answer
C. 17%
37
A humanized Hu-PBL mouse is created by injecting:
Answer
B. Human Peripheral blood lymphocytes
38
Yeast Artiļ¬cial Chromosomes (YACs) contain which of the following essential elements that are NOT found in standard bacterial plasmids?
Answer
C. Telomere, ARS and Centromere
39
S1 nuclease is used in molecular cloning to:
Answer
B. Remove single-stranded tails
40
How many pseudogenes are estimates to exist in the human genome?
Answer
C. 13,000 - 20,000
41
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
A. The number of Barr bodies in an individual with Turner syndrome is one
42
The sex chromosome complement of Klinefelter syndrome is
Answer
A. XXY
43
Which of the following matches are correct? i. Periblastula - Insects ii. Blastocyst - Mammals iii. Discoblastula - Amphioxus iv. Coeloblastula - Birds
Answer
B. Only i and ii correct
44
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
C. The genetic code is ambiguous
45
A key diļ¬erence between B DNA and Z DNA is that
Answer
C. B DNA is right-handed whereas Z DNA has left-handed
46
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
D. Cleavage causes an increase in size of the embryo
47
Which one of the following processes of gastrulation involves the "rolling in" of cells?
Answer
A. Involution
48
Androgen-binding protein is synthesized by
Answer
B. Sertoli cells in the testis
49
Pick out the wrong statement
Answer
C. All back crosses are test crosses
50
Which of the following RNAs is involved in the splicing of eukaryotic pre-mRNA?
Answer
A. Small Nuclear RNA
51
In a variable environment, a species shows delayed reproduction but higher survival rates. In a stable environment, the same species reproduces early with lower survival. Which concept best explains this shift?
Answer
B. Phenotypic plasticity in life-history strategies
52
In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS), the role of the "Hollow Cathode Lamp" is to:
Answer
C. Provide a speciļ¬c wavelength of light characteristic of the element being analyzed
53
Back scattered electrons (BSE) in SEM are most useful for:
Answer
B. Determining the atomic number (Z) contrast of the sample surface
54
Which of the following is considered a Secondary Database, derived from the analysis of primary sequence data?
Answer
C. PROSITE
55
What deļ¬nes "Pluripotency" in stem cell research, distinguishing it from "Totipotency"?
Answer
B. The ability to diļ¬erentiate into all three germ layers but not extra- embryonic tissues like the placenta
56
The Western Ghats are often referred to as a "Hottest Hotspot." Which endemic primate is a ļ¬agship species for the conservation of the silent valley tropical evergreen forests?
Answer
B. Lion-tailed Macaque
57
A researcher ļ¬nds a discrepancy in the carbon date of a marine shell compared to a terrestrial bone from the same archaeological layer. This is likely due to:
Answer
B. The Marine Reservoir Eļ¬ect
58
An "Ogive" is a graphical representation used to determine which of the following?
Answer
C. Percentiles and Medians from cumulative frequencies
59
Which measure of central tendency is considered the most "robust" estimator when a dataset contains extreme outliers or is highly contaminated?
Answer
C. Median
60
Which of the following best distinguishes "Operant Conditioning" from "Classical Conditioning"?
Answer
A. Operant conditioning involves an association between a voluntary action and its consequenes.
61
"DNA" Barcoding" is the technique used for:
Answer
B. Identifying species
62
PCR is technique used for
Answer
C. Amplifying DNA
63
Which of the following is not a diļ¬erence between Genomic library and cDNA library?
Answer
A. Presence or absence of prokaryotic origin of replication on the vector
64
STR polymorphism are used for
Answer
Question Cancelled
65
Rate limiting components of a PCR
Answer
D. Primers and dNTP
66
Paper chromatography is an example for
Answer
B. Partition chromatography
67
Which can't use Blue White Screening?
Answer
A. pBR322
68
How many restriction sites f ECOR 1 with target sequence 5' - GAATTC-3' present in a stretch of 16384bp DNA?
Answer
C. 4
69
Which is used for multiple sequence alignment?
Answer
B. Clustal W
70
Protein sequencing is done with:
Answer
A. MALDI-TOF-MS
71
The scales of measurement and examples for these scales of measurement are given below. Select the correct pairs: Scales of Examples Measurement (a) Interval (i) Students grouped by blood type (b) Ordinal (ii) Recording the temperature of water as 25 degrees Celsius and 100 degree Celsius (c) Nominal (iii) Measuring the weight of students in Kg (d) Ratio (iv) Ranking schools as 1st 2nd and 3rd in a district competition
Answer
C. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
72
Name the research which show the nature of association, but not cause eļ¬ect relationship.
Answer
C. Correlational research
73
In hypothesis testing, what does rejecting the null hypothesis imply?
Answer
B. The groups are meaningfully diļ¬erent, supporting the research hypothesis
74
Quantitative research is most appropriate when the research problem requires:
Answer
B. Measuring variables
75
Arrange the following steps of reviewing literature in the correct order: (i) Critically evaluate and select the literature (ii) Write a literature review (iii) Identify key terms for research (iv) Organise the selected literature (v) Lucate literature from databases and libraries
Answer
A. iii, v, i, iv, ii
76
What is the relationship between negative reinforcement and punishment?
Answer
C. Negative reinforcement strengthens a response, while punishment weakens a response
77
According to GagnƩ, which of the following is the correct ascending order of learning?
Answer
B. Speciļ¬c responding Chaining Multiple discrimination Classiļ¬cation Rule using Problem solving
78
Select the correct statements about Revised Booms Taxonomy (2001): (i) It replaced nouns with action verbs (ii) Highest cognitive level is create (iii) Knowledge dimensions include factual, conceptual, procedural and metacognitive knowledge (iv) It emphasised learning outcomes that are measurable and observable (v) Six levels of the cognitive domain are remember, understand, apply, analyse, synthesis and create
Answer
C. i, ii, iii, iv
79
Select the correct options in SET 2 based on the statements given in SET 1: SET 1 SET 2 (a) Realisation that a toy still exists even when hidden (i) Classiļ¬cation (b) A child knows that taller and shorter glasses carry equal (ii) Egocentrism amount of water (c) Child refuses to share the toy with his friend (iii) Object Permanence (d) Child can group objects by more than one property (iv) Conservation
Answer
B. a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
80
Which is not true about constructivist perspective?
Answer
A. Goal is prediction and control of behaviour
81
Which of the following statements is/are true about the Lok Sabha Speaker? (i) A resolution to remove the speaker can be moved only after 14 days' advance notice. (ii) Resolution for the removal of the speaker is given in writing to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (iii) While the resolution is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside over the House, but she/he can participate, speak and vote in the ļ¬rst instance. (iv) A member may give notice of a resolution under clause (c) of article 94 of the constitution.
Answer
A. i, iii, iv are true
82
Consider the following pairs; among these, pick the right pairs. i. Uniform Civil Code - Article 44 ii. Universal Adult Franchise - Article 326 iii. Assent to Bills by the Governor - Article 200 iv. Impeachment of the President - Article 61
Answer
D. All are true
83
Which of the following sentences is true regarding the appointment of the commissioners of the Election Commission?
Answer
A. The President appoints the Election Commissioners based on the recommendations of the Selection Committee, which will comprise the Prime Minister, a Cabinet Minister and the leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of the single largest opposition party).
84
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the disputes between/among States falls under its:
Answer
C. original Jurisdiction
85
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the respective lists: List I (Act) List II (Year) A. Right to information Act i. 2012 B. POCSO Act ii. 2013 C. National Food Security Act iii. 2017 D. Maternity Beneļ¬t iv. 2005 (Amendment) Act
Answer
D. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
86
Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?
Answer
A. National Human Rights Commission
87
The Supreme Court judgment in Unni Krishnan, J.P. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) is signiļ¬cant for which of the following reasons?
Answer
B. It recognized the Right to Education as a fundamental right under Article 21
88
Among the following, who was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer
D. Rajendra Prasad
89
Which among the following requires a special majority of the parliament along with the consent of the States?
Answer
A. Goods and Service Tax Council
90
As per the present arrangement, how many seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha?
Answer
B. 84
91
Which event is known as the Magnacarta of Kerala History?
Answer
D. Temple Entry proclamation
92
The slogan "Make the Nambuthiri a human being" is associated with which organisation?
Answer
B. Yogakshema Sabha
93
Who started the News Paper Vivekodayam?
Answer
C. Kumaran Asan
94
Which of the following statement is/are correct about SNDP Yogam? (i) One caste, One Religion, One God for All (ii) The Villuvandi Samaram is related to SNDP Yogam (iii) Vivekodayam is the oļ¬cial - magazine of the SNDP Yogam
Answer
B. Only (i)
95
Who wrote the book Adukalayil - ninnu Adarkalathilekku?
Answer
Question Cancelled
96
Who founded the Atmavidya Sangham?
Answer
D. Vagbhatananda
97
Arrange the following Chronologically: (i) Guruvayoor Sathyagraha (ii) Paliyam Sathyagraha (iii) Vaikom Sathyagraha (iv) Kuttamkulam Sathyagraha
Answer
B. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
98
The Kallumala Agitation was promoted by which social reformer?
Answer
B. Ayyankali
99
Match the following Social reform organisation with their respective founders: Social Reform Organisation Their Founders (i) Vagbhadanand (a) Prathyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha (ii) Poikayil Yohannan (b) The Atmavidya Sabha (iii) Sahodaran Ayyappan (c) Yogakshema Sabha (iv) V.T. Bhattathiripad (d) Sahodara Sangham
Answer
A. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
100
Match the following works with their respective writers: (i) Keralavarma- Valiyakoyi Thampuran (a) Soorya Kanthi (ii) G. Sankara kurup (b) Vaisakha Vijayam (iii) O. Chandu Menon (c) Odayil Ninnu (iv) P. Kesava Dev (d) Indulekha
Answer
A. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c)
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