| Post Name | HSST- Communicative English 574/24,575/24,645/24 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 105/2025 |
| Category Code | 574/2024, 575/2024, 645/2024 |
| Date of Test | 19 August 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is the most effective strategy for improving language learning
skills?
Answer
B. Practicing regularly through reading, writing, speaking and listening
2
Which of the following best describes the modes of language learning as applied in
language education?
Answer
C. The engagement of learners in listening, speaking, reading and writing
activities
3
How can the proficiency in language be improved? Choose the most appropriate from the
options listed below?
Answer
A. Constant usage
4
Which of the following best distinguishes intensive reading from extensive reading in
English Language Teaching?
Answer
B. Intensive reading involves short texts studied in depth, while extensive
reading involves reading longer texts for general understanding and pleasure
5
The teacher is teaching very seriously in the class. However the students do not pay
much attention to the materials but they listen. Such a situation involves _______ kind of
listening skills.
Answer
B. Passive listening
6
_______ offers real life situations to understand and develop language skills.
Answer
B. Task based model
7
What is meant by good pronunciation?
Answer
C. Speaking in a clear, effective and communicating manner
8
Copy writing is an example for _______ writing.
Answer
C. Controlled
9
Which of the following best reflects the purpose of assessment in language education?
Answer
C. To measure, support and guide learners progress in language skills
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
D. having one correct answer. Choose
the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or
Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11
“Understanding the different psychological territories of human beings is important in
professional communication” – Why?
(i) It allows you to tailor your message for maximum impact and comprehension.
(ii) It anticipates potential misinterpretations and adjusts your approach to present
conflict.
(iii) It helps you establish dominance.
(iv) It aids you in avoiding making others feel intruded upon or alienated.
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
12
Which among the following are the common verbal barriers of communication?
(i) Different levels of proficiency in a shared language.
(ii) The use of jargon, technical terms and slang.
(iii) Noise and environmental distractions.
(iv) Body language that does not align with the words being spoken.
Answer
B. (i) and (ii) are correct
13
Critical listening entails :
(i) Analysis and evaluation of the content and logical structure of the message.
(ii) Minimal involvement in the evaluation of the message.
(iii) Providing thoughtful, well-reasoned feedback.
(iv) Prioritising understanding the emotional experience and perspective of the
speaker.
Answer
D. (i) and (iii)
14
Which of the following best describes Transactional model of communication?
Answer
C. Simultaneous exchange and co-creation of meaning
15
Why is small talk often considered an essential ‘ice-breaker’ in professional contexts?
(i) Reduces initial tension and awkwardness
(ii) Builds rapport and trust.
(iii) Sets an ambiguous tone.
(iv) Gives unsolicited advice or solutions to problems
Answer
D. (i) and (ii) are correct
16
How does body orientation differ from other non verbal cues like gestures or facial
expression?
(i) It is a relatively static, macro-level cue.
(ii) It can often be less conscious and more ingrained.
(iii) It provides a window into the emotional landscape of the communicators.
(iv) It provides a contextual framework for verbal communication.
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
17
Which among the following facts are not true in conflict resolution?
(i) If the conflict is not serious, leave it alone.
(ii) Adopt a win-lose attitude.
(iii) Your agenda is only a framework that can be changed, altered or even rejected.
(iv) Attempt to affect the motivation the other party if you find them not motivated.
Answer
B. (ii)
18
Concreteness in communication means :
(i) Choose, vivid, image-building words.
(ii) Maintain acceptable writing mechanics.
(iii) Put action in your verbs.
(iv) Choose non-discriminatory expressions.
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) are correct
19
Which all statements among the following characterise a good debate?
(i) It is truly convincing and well researched.
(ii) It depends solely on stock arguments.
(iii) Debaters converse with the audience or ask the audiences’ opinions during their
speech.
(iv) Since the opposition also has their arguments ready. A debater must play this
game with conviction.
Answer
D. (i) and (iv) are correct
20
Among the following statements choose messages which are insensitive :
(i) I am always happy to discuss the contract terms with new employees.
(ii) You are completely off-base in your proposal.
(iii) The cheque was not enclosed.
(iv) We have noticed a decline in your productivity over the past few weeks.
Answer
B. (ii) and (iv)
21
Choose the sentence in which the subject and verb agree correctly :
Answer
A. Many children play cricket well
22
Which sentence is in the present perfect tense?
Answer
C. Mary has written a letter.
23
What does the idiom “once in a blue moon” mean?
Answer
B. Something that happens very rarely
24
Which sentence is punctuated correctly?
Answer
C. I bought apples, bananas, and grapes.
25
Choose the grammatically correct sentence :
Answer
B. My friend and I went to the theatre.
26
What kind of tone is generally used in a memo?
Answer
D. Brief, clear, and professional
27
Which is the correct in-text citation format as per MLA 9th edition for a source by one
author?
Answer
C. (Miller 45)
28
Which of the following is a relational clause?
Answer
C. Salt is white.
29
What is the main purpose of literature review in a research article?
Answer
B. To evaluate previous research and identify research gaps
30
Identity the sentence with the correct article usage :
Answer
A. John is an honest man.
31
Which of the following is the minimal pair?
Answer
A. Catch-batch
32
Which of the following statement or question is an example for rising tone?
Answer
B. Can I have a cup of tea, please?
33
What is the minimum requirement for a syllable?
Answer
A. Just a vowel
34
Who was the proponent of Cardinal Vowels?
Answer
B. Daniel Jones
35
Which one is an example for Indian English word
Answer
Question Cancelled
36
What is the key term in a diphthong?
Answer
B. A glide
37
Identify the word which is a weak form in terms of stress :
Answer
A. An
38
What is the technical word for a sound?
Answer
C. Phoneme
39
What are the consonants that pass air through the nasal passage?
Answer
D. Nasals
40
Identify the consonant cluster in the following words :
Answer
D. blood
41
What does skimming involve when reading a text?
Answer
C. Quickly grasping the main idea
42
Which of these is a key part of pre-reading?
Answer
C. Predicting content
43
What is the main purpose of reading comprehension exercises?
Answer
A. Understanding and responding to text
44
What is the first rule of analytical reading?
Answer
C. Classifying the book according to kind and subject matter
45
Which term best describes understanding surface-level facts?
Answer
B. Literal comprehension
46
Which strategy is most helpful in identifying the author’s intention, while reading?
Answer
D. Interpreting tone and diction
47
Which of the following best exemplifies cohesion in a paragraph?
Answer
A. Transition words linking ideas
48
Which feature most distinguishes digital texts from print texts in reading strategy?
Answer
C. Interactive multimodality
49
How does note-making assist in active reading?
Answer
B. It helps identify main points, emphasize significant statements and record
questions and answers.
50
What distinguishes Syntopical Reading from other levels of reading?
Answer
C. It involves reading multiple books on the same subject to establish a
conversation among them
51
What is the primary purpose of needs analysis in ESP?
Answer
B. To identify learners’ specific language skills
52
Case studies in ESP research are commonly used to :
Answer
A. Analyze language tasks in real workplace selling
53
Which types of questions allow learners to express their own thoughts and feelings
during needs analysis?
Answer
C. Open ended questions
54
Which resume format is best suited for someone with a regular, continuous job history?
Answer
A. Chronological resume
55
Which of the following is a key strategy in crafting an effective cover letter for a resume?
Answer
C. Tailor the letter to the specific organization and role
56
Which of the following is not a recommended phrase when confirming patient
information in medical conversations?
Answer
D. ‘Tell me more about your weekend plans?’
105/2025 12 A
57
During interviews, firm and confident hand shakes are recommended because they :
Answer
A. Show professional presence and confidence
58
Which 3 ‘C’s’ are fundemental in copy writing?
Answer
B. Clarity, Conciseness, Compelling content
59
Why is a clear and concise subject line important in e mails?
Answer
D. It helps recipient know what the message is about
60
A comprehensive ESP needs analysis should ask learners about :
Answer
B. Skills needed like writing reports, emails etc.
61
Match the following as per the theory of Marshall McLuhan on Hot/Cool Medium?
(i) Television
Answer
D. Hot
62
Assertion : ‘The (mass media) products indoctrinate and manipulate; they promote a
false consciousness which is immune against its falsehood’, says Herbert
Marcuse.
Reasoning : This has become a reality as the mass media can be regarded as the
‘culture industry’ that commodities culture to serve capital interests and
suppresses critical thought.
Answer
C. Both Assertion and Reasoning are correct
63
“Gunshots ring out. Screams echo. Downtown grinds to a halt. “This is an example of
___________.
Answer
B. Staccato Lead
64
___________ is an unscripted sentence or phrase that an anchor uses after the running of
a news package or item in a TV news bulletin
Answer
B. Back anno
65
___________ is a form of paid online advertising where the ads blend seamlessly with the
form, style, and function of the platform and often imitate the surrounding editorial
content to provide a non-disruptive user experience.
Answer
A. Native Advertising
66
A form of isolation in which algorithms reinforce existing preferences, opinions, and
engagements of users and shut down all other narratives :
Answer
B. Filter Bubble
67
Point out the Saussurean Binary Opposite among the following
Answer
D. All the above
105/2025 14 A
68
‘What India Watches’ is a part of the logo of :
Answer
A. BARC India
69
A ___________ is a production-ready version of the screenplay that contains technical
instructions and is used by the director, cinematographer, and crew to plan and execute
the shoot.
Answer
C. Shooting Script
70
___________ writing structure is used when there is an event with multiple points of
focus where the traditional inverted pyramid style is not suitable.
Answer
C. Linked boxes
71
In which tale does Chaucer use the Northern Dialect as a Comic Device?
Answer
B. The Reeve’s Tale
72
Which two major factors contributed most to the shift from Middle English to Modern
English?
Answer
C. The Great Vowel Shift and the Introduction of the Printing Press
73
Macaulay’s Minute on English Education (1835) was based on, and a response to :
Answer
B. Charter Act of 1813
74
In English language, reduplication is used for :
Answer
D. expressive, playful and aesthetic effects
75
The bioprogramme model of linguistic theory explains :
Answer
A. the overwhelming structural similarities of creoles
76
In linguistics, what does the term “doxastic nature” most directly refer to :
Answer
D. language elements related to expressing or reporting beliefs and belief states
77
According to Chomsky, what is Language Acquisition Device (LAD)?
Answer
B. An innate mental mechanism in humans for language learning
78
At the heart of Parsons’ structural functionalism was a voluntary theory of action
drawing upon and refining
Answer
A. Max Weber’s concept of purposive social action
79
The porosity of language is crucial in the creation of
Answer
B. New words and creative expressions through cultural contact and
multilingualism
80
Which of the following best describes “scaffolding” in the context of language learning
and linguistics?
Answer
B. Providing temporary support and guidance to help learners acquire new
language skills, gradually reducing help as they become more independent
81
Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 is significant in Indian ELT history because it :
Answer
B. Advocated for mass education, vernacular instruction at primary levels and
English at higher levels
82
During a session using Audio-Lingual method drills, a teacher tries to scaffold
spontaneous speech by moving from controlled repetition to sentence Manipulation
exercises. However, students continue to rely heavily on memorized patterns and
struggle with creative language use. Which conceptual limitation of the Audio-Lingual
Method does this exemplify?
Answer
A. It does not sufficiently develop declarative knowledge needed for language
creativity
83
Which of the following is the most critical underpinning principle of Communicative
Language Teaching?
Answer
B. Prioritizing meaningful interaction and authentic language use over
form-focused instruction
84
In a multilingual Indian classroom, a teacher adopts a process syllabus that progresses
based on ‘learners’ immediate communication needs. What is the most significant
challenge this approach may create and how can it be effectivity addressed?
Answer
A. Challenge : Learners may feel lost or anxious without a fixed syllabus
structure.
Solution : Establish clear short-term objectives and conduct regular
learner reflection sessions to provide guidance and
reassurance.
85
An ELT textbook features a unit on ‘Career Choices” designed for urban, middle-class
learners in a Western country. The teacher in a rural Indian context recognizes that the
career options presented (e.g., investment banker, web designer for a start-up) are
largely irrelevant or unattainable for her students. To effectively adapt this unit for her
learners, what is the most appropriate strategy?
Answer
B. Replace the career options with locally relevant and accessible professions,
while maintaining the language structures
86
A teacher is designing a worksheet to accompany a textbook unit on “Giving Directions.”
The textbook provides a map and a list of locations. The teacher wants to ensure the
worksheet effectively scaffolds learners from controlled practice to more independent
communication. Which sequence of activities on the worksheet would best achieve this
goal?
Answer
B. First, listen and repeat target phrases: then, fill-in-the-blank with
prepositions of place; finally, independent role-play giving directions.
87
A lesson plan from an ELT textbook presents a new grammatical structure (e.g.. Passive
Voice) through a deductive approach, starting with a rule explanation, followed by
fill-in-the-blank exercises. The teacher observes that students struggle to use the passive
voice spontaneously in their speaking tasks. To better facilitate meaningful learning and
application in a revised lesson, what pedagogical adaptation should the teacher
prioritize?
Answer
B. Introduce the structure inductively through a communicative context first,
then clarify the rule
88
Which of the following best describes a key pedagogical advantage of the flipped
classroom model in ELT compared to traditional lecture-based teaching?
Answer
B. Content delivery happens asynchronously outside class, freeing face-to-face
time for active, communicative and personalized learning activities
89
What is the main purpose of using a portfolio in language learning assessment?
Answer
C. To collect evidence of learners progress over time
90
In an inclusive ELT classroom, a teacher notices that some learners consistently struggle
with vocabulary retention despite whole-class instruction. Which of the following is the
most effective next step to support these learners?
Answer
D. Change teaching methods by adding visual aids, audio support and
step-by-step vocabulary activities specifically for learners who have difficulty
91
Which among the following can be considered as the primary goal of teaching
pronunciation in a second language classroom?
Answer
D. gain sufficient pronunciation skills for communication
92
Which among the following are correct about silent reading?
(i) enable the learners to read with comprehension and speed
(ii) improve the pronunciation of the learners
(iii) enable the learners to infer the meaning
Answer
C. Only (i & iii)
93
Which among the following are not categorised as projected aids?
(i) Power point presentations
(ii) Charts
(iii) Films
(iv) Flash cards
Answer
B. Only (ii & iv)
94
Which among the following are the aims of teaching practice?
(i) It gives student teachers the opportunity to put the theories into practice and
develop a deeper understanding of educational principles and their implication for
learning.
(ii) It provides future teachers the practical experience in school to overcome the
problems of discipline and enable them develop a method of control.
(iii) It prepares student teachers for entry into the teaching profession.
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii & iii)
95
Which among the following is wrongly matched?
Answer
C. Probing question – Movements and gestures
96
Which of the following are considered as Receptive Skills?
Answer
C. Listening and Reading
97
Which among the following are the outcomes of Reflective Journal Writing for student
teachers?
(i) To become reflective practitioners
(ii) To develop professional skills and ideals, as well as improving their ability to self-
criticize
(iii) To develop self-awareness and problem-solving abilities
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii & iii)
98
Which among the given statements are correct about Continuing Professional
Development?
(i) The online activities cannot be combined with the offline practice.
(ii) It supports teacher development, both as individual and as educator.
(iii) It is considered as an ongoing process and is conducted in a long-term sustained
manner.
Answer
B. Only (ii & iii)
99
Which among the following are the benefits of peer feedback?
(i) It promotes deep learning.
(ii) It provides an opportunity for academic discourse.
(iii) It helps to integrate new knowledge as well as to make new connections
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, & iii)
100
Which among the following statements are correct about summative assessment in
language education?
(i) It is usually conducted in the last few weeks of term to see how well students have
learned and what they were supposed to have learned.
(ii) It is used to determine whether a student has fulfilled the specified learning
outcomes and may achieve some kind of accreditation.
(iii) In summative assessment, students are keen to experiment with ideas and
concepts.
Answer
D. Only (i & ii)
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105/2025 22 A
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