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Kerala PSC Inspector of Factories and Boilers GR II Previous Question Paper – 053/2016

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Post NameINSPECTOR OF FACTORIES AND BOILERS GR II
DepartmentFACTORIES AND BOILERS
Question Paper Code053/2016
Date of Test19 April 2016
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
A steel bar 10 mm × 10 mm cross section is subjected to an axial tensile load of 20 kN. If the length of bar is 1 m and E = 200 GPa, then elongation of the bar is:
Answer
A. 1 mm
2
The modulus of rigidity and poisson’s ratio of a material are 80GPa and 0.3 respectively, Its youngs modulus will be :
Answer
B. 208 GPa
3
The equivalent torque on a shaft, when it is subjected to bending moment M and torque T is:
Answer
B. (M² + T²)^(1/2)
4
If the value of poisson’s ratio is zero, then it means that :
Answer
D. none of these
5
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying capacity to that of solid shaft of same material and same outside diameter is:
Answer
C. 15/16
6
Two shafts are made of the same material. The diameter of first is twice that of second. The ratio of power which can be transmitted by first shaft and second is
Answer
C. 1/8
7
Answer
A. olid shaft is subjected to a bending moment and twisting moment of 3 kNm and 4 kNm respectively. The equivalent bending moment is :
8
The buckling load is maximum for a column if :
Answer
C. th ends of the column are fixed
9
The buckling load for a column hinged at both ends is 15 KN. If the ends are fixed, the buckling load changes to :
Answer
A. kN
10
The Euler's load for a column is 1 MN and crushing load is 1.5 MN. The Rankine load is : :
Answer
B. 0.6 MN
11
The shape of bending moment diagram for a uniform cantilever beam carrying uniformly distributed load over its length is |
Answer
D. a parabola
12
Steady flow occurs when :
Answer
D. ditions do not change with time at any point
13
The depth of centre of pressure in rectangular lamina of 3m deep fully immersed in a liquid having one side in line with free surface is :
Answer
C. 2
14
The pressure in metres of oil (specific gravity 0.85) equivalent to 85 metres of water is :
Answer
A. 100m
15
Pressure in Pascal at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of water willbe: .
Answer
B. 9810 Pa
16
Rain drops are spherical because of :
Answer
C. surface tension
17
In a multiple disc clutch, if nj and n, are number of discs on driving and driven shafts . respectively, then number of pairs of contact surface will be :
Answer
A. n+n,-1
18
A Flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kgm? fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in energy of | 1936 joules. The mean speed of the flywheel is :
Answer
B. 600 rpm
19
The stud bolt is :
Answer
A. thread on both ends
20
The product of moment of inertia and angular velocity is known as :
Answer
C. angular momentum
21
In the case of flat pivot bearing the rubbing velocity is :
Answer
B. zero at the centre and maximum at the outer radius
22
The frictional torque transmitted in the case of flat pivot bearing for uniform pressure is:
Answer
C. (2/3)μWR
23
Which of the following is an example of friction clutch?
Answer
D. all of the above
24
The module is defined as the ratio of :
Answer
B. pitch circle diameter to number of teeth
25
The product of module and diametral pitch is equal to:
Answer
C. 1.0
26
The locus of a point on the circumference of a circle, which rolls without slipping on a fixed straight line is known as:
Answer
A. yeloid
27
When the axes of the first and last wheels of a compound gear train are co axial, then the train is known as:
Answer
C. verted gear train
28
The follower of a cam has:
Answer
D. any one of the above
29
Which one the following is a spring loaded governor? ;
Answer
D. Hartnell governor
30
If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose mean radius is half mean radius of the former, the energy stored in the latter at the same speed will be P
Answer
C. one-fourth of the first
31
What is the tearing strength of a plate of a riveted joint whose pitch is 50 mm and rivet : diameter is mm? The plate thickness is 10 mm and permissible tensile stress is 120 N/mm??
Answer
A. 36kN
32
For a single v but weld joint the effective throat thickness is 10 mm and length of weld is 100 mm. If the stress is 120 N/mm?, the permissible load is equal to : “
Answer
B. 120kN
33
The tendency of knocking in Cl Engines is reduced by ;
Answer
B. injection of fuel just before TDC :
34
Pelton wheel is used in those places where : |
Answer
A. high head and low discharge are available
35
Francis turbine is
Answer
C. mixed flow turbine
36
Diesel cycle consists of :
Answer
C. two adiabatic, one constant volume and one constant pressure processes
37
One ton refrigeration is equal to :
Answer
A. 210 kJ/min
38
In sensible cooling process the relative humidity : |
Answer
B. increases
39
In psychrometric chart, dew point temperature lines are :
Answer
A. horizontal
40
The basic law of heat conduction is :
Answer
A. Fourier's law
41
Ifa body reflects all radiations incident on it, then it is known as:
Answer
C. hite body
42
A steel ball of mass 1 kg and specific heat 0.4 KJ/kg is at a temperature of 60° C. It is dropped into 1 kg of water at 20° C. The final steady state temperature of water is :
Answer
A. 23.5°C
43
The ratio of actual mass water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure is called :
Answer
D. degree of saturation
44
In psychrometric chart, specific humidity lines are :
Answer
B. Horizontal J
45
The octane number of petrol generally available is :
Answer
C. to 100
46
The specific fuel consumption is defined as :
Answer
C. fuel consumption per hour per brake power
47
For a four cylinder in line internal combustion engine, the most popular firing order is ;
Answer
D. 1-3-4-2
48
The brake power of an IC Engine having speed 1200 rpm with torque 15 Nm is:
Answer
D. 600 « watts
49
Property of materials due to which they can be drawn into wires is called :
Answer
C. ductility
50
Property of cast iron is:
Answer
D. all of these
51
Iron carbon equilibrium diagram :
Answer
D. all of these
52
Aspace lattice found in
Answer
A. iron is called : |
53
Ina unit cell of face centered cubic space lattice the total number of atoms : |
Answer
Question Cancelled
54
Draft on pattern for casting is :
Answer
D. taper to facilitate its removal from mould
55
Cores are used to:
Answer
A. make desired recess in castings
56
The purpose of chaplets is to:
Answer
D. support the core
57
Seam welding isa:
Answer
C. continuous spot welding process
58
The consumable electrode is used in :
Answer
B. MIG welding
59
The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and basic size is called :
Answer
A. upper deviation
60
Phosphor bronze has : .
Answer
B. good wearing qualities and high elasticity
61
The drawing down is a process of :
Answer
B. ducing the cross section of a bar
62
In orthogonal cutting system the : j
Answer
D. all of these
63
Continuous chips are formed during machining of :
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
‘The surface finish is improved by the increase in : :
Answer
D. all of these d
65
In break even analysis, total cost consists of : ,
Answer
C. fixed cost + variable cost ;
66
PERT stands for :
Answer
C. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
67
‘The simplex method is the basic method for :
Answer
B. linear programming |
68
EOQ stands for :
Answer
A. . Economic Order Quantity
69
The system of working known as functional organisation was introduced by :
Answer
B. F.W. Taylor
70
Line organisation is also known as : :
Answer
B. military organisation
71
For civil engineering construction, the following type of organisation is preferred :
Answer
A. _ line organisation
72
Slack represents the difference between the : |
Answer
C. latest allowable time and earliest expected time
73
Inthe network diagram : ;
Answer
D. an activity is represented by an arrow and event by a circle v 11 053/2016 ; ; [P.T.0.]
74
ABC analysis :
Answer
D. all of the above
75
Product layout is suited for :
Answer
A. mass production
76
Gantt chart is used for :
Answer
B. production schedule
77
The main objective of work measurement is to:
Answer
D. of the above : :
78
The time taken for the job from its arrival to the system until its departure is
Answer
B. flow time
79
In ABC analysis, the C items are those which represents
Answer
A. small percentage of the total annual consumption value
80
If EOQ is within the range of the lowest discounted rate offered, then
Answer
D. accept the discount offer and order at EOQ level
81
The Ninth schedule was added to Constitution of India in :
Answer
A. 1951
82
Who led the committee appointed by congress party which proposed the 42% Amendment of Indian Constitution?
Answer
C. Sardar Swaran Singh
83
First Indian state to launch Mid day meal programme since independence :
Answer
B. Tamilnadu
84
Kerala Gramin Bank is sponsored by :
Answer
D. Canara Bank
85
City challenge competition is a criterion for the programme namely :
Answer
A. Smart City
86
First nation to make corporate social responsibility mandatory: ~
Answer
D. India
87
Who founded the daily “Al Ameen”?
Answer
B. Mohammed Abdur Rahiman
88
Founder of “Saiva Prakasha Sabha’ :
Answer
A. Thaikat Ayyavu
89
Social reformer who advocated “Aananda Matham” :
Answer
C. Brahmananda Siva Yogi
90
Author of “Mariamma” Natakam : |
Answer
D. Polachirackal Kocheepan Tharakan
91
Chastity Trial of Nambuthiri women that prevailed up to the beginning of 20" century :
Answer
D. Smartha Vicharam A 13 053/2016 [P.T.O]
92
Guruvayur temple thrown open to the depressed sections of Hindus in :
Answer
C. 1946
93
The historical fiction of Uroob : f
Answer
B. Sundarikalum Sundaranmarum
94
“Puthiya Manushyan Puthiya Lokam” is a collection of essays by ‘ i
Answer
A. M., Govindan
95
Head quarters of Basel Mission in South India : |
Answer
B. Mangalore <
96
Who directed the film PK? |
Answer
C. Rajkumar Hirani .
97
The VYAPAM Scam struck in news from the state of :
Answer
B. Madhya Pradesh |
98
Sundar Pichai from Tamilnadu was designated recently as the CEO of :
Answer
D. Google
99
International Students Day is observed on :
Answer
C. 17 November
100
Who among the following won four Grand slams in a calendar year?
Answer
Question Cancelled

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