| Post Name | INSTRUCTOR GR-I (ENGINEERING COLLEGES) - TECHNICAL EDUCATION DEPARTMENT. |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 091/2022 |
| Category Code | 193/2020 |
| Date of Test | 23 September 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Suppose there are ten signals, each requiring 4,000 Hz, are multiplexed onto a single
channel using FDM. What is the minimum bandwidth required for the multiplexed
channel ? Assume that the guard bands are 400 Hz wide.
Answer
D. 43,600 Hz
2
What is the size of ARP request and ARP reply packet ?
Answer
C. 28 bytes
3
Which of the following specifies WLAN security standard ?
Answer
C. IEEE 802.11 i
4
Which of the following switching services are appropriate for setting up :
I. a voice communication, and
II. internet service respectively ?
Answer
C. (I) Circuit Switching, (II) Packet Switching
5
In cryptography, the following uses transposition ciphers and the keyword is LAYER.
Encrypt the following message. (Spaces are omitted during encryption) WELCOME TO
NETWORK SECURITY !
Answer
B. EETSICOOCYWMEKRONRU!LTWET
6
Match the following :
P. UDP Header’s Port Number I. 48 bits
Q. Ethernet MAC Address II. 8 bits
R. IPV6 Next Header III. 32 bits
S. TCP Header’s Sequence Number IV. 16 bits
Answer
C. P – IV, Q – I, R – II, S – III
7
Consider the following statements :
I. Port number for DHCP client is 67.
II. The DHCP employs a connectionless service model, using the User Datagram
Protocol (UDP).
III. DHCP Lease Time is the amount of time in a network device can use an IP
Address in a network.
Answer
C. Only II and III are correct
8
A digital signature is required
Answer
A. For non-repudiation of communication by a sender
9
If the message contains only one bit and the network contains a single link, then latency
corresponds to the
Answer
D. Propagation delay
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
D. having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11
Select the true statement about ICMP error messages :
Statement 1 : No ICMP message will be generated for a datagram having a multicast
address.
Statement 2 : No ICMP message will be generated for a fragmented datagram that is
not the first fragment.
Answer
C. Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
12
The protocol can connect together any internetwork of autonomous systems using
Answer
D. Arbitrary topology
13
Which one of the following statements is/are false with respect to SCTP protocol ?
I. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a transport-layer protocol.
II. SCTP is a connectionless protocol.
III. SCTP is a byte-oriented protocol.
IV. SCTP is a full-duplex connection.
Answer
B. II and III
14
UMTS air interface is based on
Answer
D. CDMA
15
The Data Encryption Standard
Answer
B. An expansion permutation, an XOR operation, S boxes, a straight permutation
16
Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in geostationary orbit. A satellite is
said to be in such an orbit when
I. The orbit is geosynchronous.
II. The orbit is circular.
III. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
IV. The orbit is at an altitude of 22236 km.
Answer
A. I, II and III
17
Consider the data transfer using TCP over a 1 Gbps link. Assuming that the Maximum
Segment Lifetime (MSL) is set to 60 seconds, the minimum number of bits required for
the sequence number field of the TCP header, to prevent the sequence number space
from wrapping around during the MSL is
Answer
B. 33
18
The message
Answer
B. 52D
19
Define the type of the following destination addresses :
I. 4A : 30 : 10 : 20 : 30 : 4A
II. 47 : 20 : 25 : 3B : EF : BC
Answer
D. I : Unicast and II : Multicast
20
Consider the following statements :
Statement 1 : Checksum field is present in both TCP header and UDP header.
Statement 2 : Size of source port in a TCP header is 16 bytes.
Answer
A. Only Statement 1 is true
21
Match the following.
1. USART a. 8251
2. Microcontroller b. 8051
3. Interrupt controller Cc. 8259
4. DMA controller d. 8257
5. UART e. 8250
Answer
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e
22
The processing speeds of pipeline segments are
Answer
B. Unequal
23
Number of flip-flops needed for mod-18 counters is
Answer
C. 5
24
What will happen when executing XCHG instruction ?
Answer
C. No flags are affected
25
Most efficient to perform arithmetic operation on the numbers is
Answer
B. 2’s complement
26
IEEE single precision and double precision format to represent floating point numbers
has
Answer
C. 32 bits and 64 bits respectively
27
Simplified form of ab � ac � bc is
Answer
B. ac � ab
28
What will be the output of the following ?
MVI B, 80H
MOV A, B
MOV C, A
MVI D, 37 H
OUT PORT 1
HLT
Answer
A. output = 80 H
29
How many 8 bit char can be transmitted per sec over 7200 baud serial communication
link using parity synchronous mode of transfer with one start bit, 9 data bits, 1 stop bit
and 1 parity bit ?
Answer
A. 600
30
The 8085 microprocessor has
Answer
B. 16 bit address bus and 8 bit data bus
31
Select true statement from the following.
Answer
A. Unless enabled, CPU won’t be able to process interrupt.
32
RST 7 instruction in 8085 microprocessor is equivalent to
Answer
D. CALL 0038 H
33
Performance of pipelined processor suffers if
1. Pipeline stages have different delays
2. Instructions depend on each other
3. Stages share hardware resources
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3 are true
34
In 8085 microprocessor, flags affected by arithmetic operation is
Answer
D. AC, CY and Z flags
35
The 8086 microprocessor can access
Answer
B. 220 byte memory
36
Following statements are given
1. Counters are sequential circuits.
2. Gate is an example of combinational logic.
Answer
C. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is wrong
37
Assertion : If more than one input in an encoder is active high, then it produces an output
that may not be the correct code.
Reason : Assigning priorities to each input of encoder solves issue.
Answer
C. Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion, but Assertion is true
38
Statement 1 : A switch-tail ring counter connects the complement of the output of the
last shift register to the input of the first register.
Statement 2 : Around the ring, it circulates a stream of 1’s followed by 0’s.
Answer
B. Both the statements are correct
39
Choose among the following the minimum number of JK flip-flops required to construct
a synchronous counter with the count sequence
Answer
A. 3
40
The range of integers that can be represented by n-bit 2’s complement number
system is
Answer
A. –2n–1 to (2n–1 – 1)
41
In pentium 4, the address bus is of _______ bits.
Answer
D. 36
42
Which register used as working area in CPU ?
Answer
A. Accumulator
43
Which memory is non-volatile and can be programmed and erased in circuit ?
Answer
C. EEPROM
44
How many addresses are required for 25 � 40 video RAM ?
Answer
B. 1000
45
The main feature of RAMBUS tech is
Answer
A. Speed of transfer
46
Which of the following is not true about cache memory ?
Answer
C. Sequential access memory
47
The data size of word is
Answer
B. 2 byte
48
Efficient access time is directly proportional to
Answer
C. Page fault ratio
49
The access time of magnetic bubble memory is
Answer
D. 30 microseconds
50
Which bus is used for transferring data to and from different devices ?
Answer
B. Address bus
51
RR scheduling is suitable for
Answer
C. Time shared OS
52
In optimal page replacement algorithm, when a page is to be replaced, which of the
following page is chosen ?
Answer
C. Not frequently occurred page in future
53
Deadlock can be described more precisely in terms of directed graph is called
Answer
A. System resource allocation graph
54
The first fit, best fit and worst fit algorithm can be used for
Answer
B. Contiguous allocation of memory
55
External fragmentation occures when
Answer
D. Memory area remain unused because it is too small to be allocated
56
The time taken for desired sector to rotate to the disk head is called
Answer
A. Rotational latency
57
If a disk has a seek time of 20 ms, rotates 20 revolutions per second, has 100 words per
block and each track has capacity of 300 words. The total time required to access one
block is
Answer
B. 60
58
How many bits are there in logical address ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
Answer
D. Program counter
60
Poor response time are caused by
Answer
Question Cancelled
61
What will be the output of the following code ?
public class Prog1 {
static {
System.out.print(“Hello”);
}
public static void main (String[] args){
System.out.print(“Hi”);
}
static {
System.out.print(“Hai”);
}
}
Answer
C. HelloHaiHi
62
What will be the output of the following code ?
class Parent {
public static void info() {
System.out.println(“I am Parent”);
}
}
class Child extends Parent {
public static void info() {
System.out.println(“I am Child”);
}
}
public class Prog2 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Parent p = new Child();
p.info();
}
}
Answer
C. I am Parent
63
What will be the error of the following program?
interface I1 { double PI = 3.14; }
interface I2 { double PI = 3.1415; }
interface I3 extends I1, I2 { double area(double r); }
public class InterfaceTest implements I3 {
public double area(double r) { return PI*r*r; }
public static void main(String[] args) {
InterfaceTest it = new InterfaceTest();
System.out.println(it.area(5));
}
}
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
What will be the output of the following program ?
public class SimpleClass {
public static void main(String[] args) {
SimpleClasssc = new SimpleClass();
sc.begin();
}
void begin() {
int[] a = {4, 5, 6};
int[] b = operate(
Answer
Question Cancelled
65
Which of the following statements is/are true ?
S1 : Every class is part of some package.
S2 : All classes in a file are part of the same package.
S3 : If no package is specified, the classes in the file go into java.lang package.
S4 : If no package is specified, a new package is created with folder name ‘custom’ and
the class is put in this package.
Answer
D. Only S1 and S2
66
What will be the output of the following Java Program ?
public class Test1 {
public static long method(long n) {
if(n<50) n = method(n+5);
return (n–2);
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
System.out.println(Test1.method(35));
}
}
Answer
B. 42
67
Consider the following program :
public class Test2 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String str1 = new String(“abcd”);
String str2 = str1;
str2 = str2.concat(new String(“ef”));
System.out.print(str1.concat(str2));
StringBuffer sb1 = new StringBuffer(“abcd”);
StringBuffer sb2 = sb1;
sb2 = sb2.append(new StringBuffer(“ef”));
System.out.print(sb1.append(sb2));
}
}
What will be the output ?
Answer
A. abcdabcdefabcdefabcdef
68
What will be the output of the following program?
class Base {
public static void display() { System.out.print("I am Base"); }
}
class Derived extends Base {
public static void display() { super.display(); System.out.print("I am Derived"); }
}
public class Test3 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Base b = new Derived();
b.display();
}
}
Answer
D. Compilation Error
69
The pre-order traversal of a binary search tree is given by 11, 7, 5, 1, 6, 8, 9, 15, 14, 18,
16, 19. Then the post-order traversal of this tree is
Answer
B. 1, 6, 5, 9, 8, 7, 14, 16, 19, 18, 15, 11
70
An unordered list contains m distinct elements. The number of comparisons to find an
element in this list that is neither maximum nor minimum is
Answer
Question Cancelled
71
Level order traversal of a rooted tree can be done by starting from the root and performing
which of the following ?
Answer
D. Breadth first search
72
What is the result of evaluating the following prefix expression ?
*+5–21/–42+–531
Answer
C. 4
73
In the balanced binary tree in the below figure, how many nodes will become unbalanced
when two nodes are inserted as children of the node ‘g’ ?
a
b e
c d f
g
Answer
B. 3
74
Consider the following graph
a
e
b
f
h
g
Among the following sequences :
P:abeghf
Q:abfghe
R:abfhge
S:afghbe
Which are depth first traversals of the above graph ?
Answer
D. P, R and S only
75
Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change ?
Answer
D. Waterfall model
76
White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called
Answer
C. Glass box testing
77
Which one of the following is not desired in a good Software Requirement Specifications
(SRS) document ?
Answer
D. Algorithms for Software Implementation
78
COCOMO stands for
Answer
A. Constructive Cost Model
79
Line Of Code (LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures ?
Answer
A. Direct measures
80
Which of the following is not one of the principles of Agile software development
method ?
Answer
D. Following the plan
81
In RDBMS, second normal form deals with
Answer
C. Partial dependencies
82
A relation R(x, y) in a particular relational database has redundant data due to inconsistent
data entry and errors. Due to this several queries may fail to execute or generate incorrect
answers. Despite these challenges, can any of the queries listed below execute without
any errors and without any redundant records ?
Answer
B. SELECT x, y FROM R GROUP BY x, y
83
Consider two transactions T1 and T2 shown in figure. Based on the practical assumption
that ACID properties have to be adhered to, in order to keep the database in consistent
state, which of the two transactions would have to execute rollback due to failed operations,
if concurrency control algorithms have been implemented on the database.
Time
Read Validate Write
T1
Read set :
Answer
B. Write set :
84
For N given relations, number of alternative join trees possible may be approximately
Answer
D. None of the above
85
Objective of normalization technique in DBMS is to
Answer
C. Remove redundancies
86
What is the output of the following code snippet?
Answer
D. Error
87
Consider the following JavaScript code snippet.
What is the output displayed on the webpage?
Answer
B. india
88
A Scripting language is a
Answer
D. High level programming language
89
Which of the following is used for terminate script execution in PHP ?
Answer
C. die()
90
A MySQL customer table with some null values in a particular column for some of the
records (i. e., optional data that customers left blank while filling a Web form) is given. You
are asked to replace only these NULL value entries with a term “N/A”. What command
can be used do this ?
Answer
A. UPDATE
91
Which of the following is used to delete an entire MySQL database ?
Answer
D. DROP DATABASE
92
What will be the output of the following PHP code ?
Answer
C. 1212
93
What MySQL type can be used to store a list of permitted values for a variable during
table creation time ?
Answer
B. SET
94
How does the identity operator compare two values ?
Answer
C. Converts them to a common compatible data type and then compares resulting
values
95
In a SELECT with a GROUP BY clause, a WHERE clause and a HAVING clause, when
are the WHERE conditions applied before the HAVING condition ?
Answer
B. Always
96
___________ is an example of a magic method in PHP.
Answer
C. _wakeup()
97
Using CSS, the background of an XHTML page can be set to an image
Answer
D. none of the above
98
Which of the below statements are true in the context of Primary Key (PK) and Unique
Key (UK) ?
Answer
C. PK does not allow NULL values while UK allows it
99
What is the purpose of
Answer
B. Enclose text to be displayed by non-JavaScript browser
100
How is the following Boolean expression interpreted ?
var x = new Boolean (“false”) ;
Answer
A. x = true
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