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Kerala PSC Instructor Grade I in Chemical Engineering (Engineering Colleges) – Technical Education Previous Question Paper – 067/2022/OL

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Post NameInstructor Grade I in Chemical Engineering (Engineering Colleges) - Technical Education
Question Paper Code067/2022/OL
Category Code192/2020
Date of Test17 August 2022
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
The pressure drop in pumping water at 30°C (viscosity = 1 cP) through a pipe of 5 cm diameter through a distance of 100 m at a velocity 0.002 m/s is
Answer
A. 2.56 Pa
2
If the pressure measurement in a vessel gives a reading of 690 mm Hg, where the barometer reads 755 mm Hg, the pressure reading is reported as
Answer
D. 65 mm Hg vacuum
3
An inclined manometer is used to measure the pressure difference ΔP between fluids A and B. The angle of inclination of the manometric tube with the horizontal is θ. The length of inclined column showing the difference in pressure between the two limbs is R. If 𝜌� and 𝜌� are the densities of A and B, ΔP = 𝑃� - 𝑃� is given by,
Answer
B. R sin θ �𝜌� − 𝜌� �𝑔
4
A Newtonian liquid (ρ = density, μ = viscosity) is flowing through a pipe of diameter D with velocity v. If ΔP is the pressure drop across a length L, for laminar flow ΔP is proportional to
Answer
A. Lμv/D²
5
Liquid A flows through a pipe under laminar flow. Liquid B flows through another pipe of same diameter under turbulent flow. The average flow velocity for turbulent flow is 0.86 times the centre line velocity. For having equal volumetric flow rates, the ratio of maximum velocities, 𝑉max,� /𝑉max,� is
Answer
C. 1.72
6
Match the following. I II J. Ideal fluid P. Velocity profile flattens K. Turbulent flow Q. Flow in layers L. Laminar flow R. Velocity profile developing M. Entrance length S. Potential flow
Answer
C. J-S, K-P, L-Q, M-R
7
In a centrifugal pump, cavitation occurs when the pressure at the impeller eye becomes
Answer
D. less than the liquid vapour pressure
8
Choose the correct values of Fanning friction factor f: through a galvanized iron pipe (k/D = 0.0005), water flows at Reynolds number 10²; through another pipe of the same diameter and roughness, water flows at Reynolds number 10⁶. The f values are
Answer
D. 0.16 and 0.0045
9
Match the following. I II P. Globe valve 1. Unidirectional flow Q. Gate valve 2. Protect pump from excessive pressure R. Relief valve 3. Quick open S. Check valve 4. Flow control
Answer
Question Cancelled
10
Which of the following combination of the flow pattern can be observed in an open turbine ?
Answer
D. Radial and axial
11
The terminal settling velocity of a spherical particle in gravitational settling under Stoke's law regime
Answer
C. Varies directly with the square particle diameter
12
Bond's crushing law states that, the work required to form a product of specified size from a very large size feed is proportional to
Answer
A. square root of surface to volume ratio of product
13
Which of the following is most suitable for transportation of sticky material ?
Answer
C. Screw conveyor
14
Match the following. I II P. Attrition 1. Gyratory crusher Q. Attrition and impact 2. Fluid energy mill R. Compression 3. Blake Jaw crusher S. Compression and impact 4. Ball mill
Answer
B. P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
15
Choose the incorrect statement.
Answer
D. Both centrifugal and reciprocating pumps are subject to air binding.
16
Which of the following is a positive displacement pump ?
Answer
B. Gear pump
17
When the diameter of the column is small with deep bed of solids, which problem is prone to occur in a fluidized bed ?
Answer
A. Slugging
18
What is the meaning of the following expression : -150 + 200 mesh particles ?
Answer
A. Pass through 150 and retained in 200
19
A centrifugal pump is used to pump water (density = 1000 kg/m³) from an inlet pressure of 10⁵ Pa to an outlet pressure of 2 × 10⁵ Pa. The exit is at an elevation of 10 m above the pump. The cross-sectional area of the inlet and outlet pipes is 10⁻³ m². The average fluid velocity is 10 m/s and acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s². Neglect frictional losses. The pump efficiency is 80%. The power required for the pump in head of water is
Answer
C. 25 m
20
Which of the following Mixers are used for Cohesive Solids ?
Answer
A. Change can mixer
21
One Btu of heat is supplied to 100 g water at 30°C and atmospheric pressure. There is no heat losses to the surroundings. The temperature of water will increase to
Answer
C. 32.52°C
22
The molar composition of a gas mixture is 10% 𝐻2 , 20% 𝑂2 , 30% 𝑁2 and the rest water vapour. If half of the water vapour is condensed, the molar composition of 𝑂2 in the resulting gas will be
Answer
B. 25%
23
A solution of NaOH is prepared by dissolving 40 g NaOH in 90 g water. The composition of NaOH in the solution as mole fraction and mass fraction are approximately
Answer
D. 0.167 and 0.31
24
Pure carbon is completely burnt in oxygen. The flue gas analysis shows 70% 𝐶𝑂2 , 20% CO and 10%𝑂2 . The percent excess oxygen used is
Answer
A. 0
25
A sample of gas at 27°C and 1 atm occupies a volume of 5L. The volume occupied by the same gas sample at 47°C is
Answer
C. 5.3 L
26
Choose the incorrect statement.
Answer
D. Dalton's law of partial pressures is applicable to a gas mixture whose individual components obey van der Waals equation.
27
A sample of gas mixture has 20% 𝑂2 and 80% 𝑁2 on volume basis. The weight percentage 𝑂2 of in the gas mixture is
Answer
B. 22.2
28
Which of the following is a byproduct of petroleum refining ?
Answer
C. Sulfur
29
Which of the following has maximum hydrogen to carbon ratio (by weight) ?
Answer
A. Gasoline
30
Which of the following has higher heat of combustion ?
Answer
D. Paraffins
31
In petroleum refining operations, the process used for converting paraffins and naphthenes to aromatics is
Answer
C. Catalytic reforming
32
The octane number decreases in the order
Answer
D. Aromatics > Isoparaffins > Naphthenes > Olefins > n-paraffins
33
Hydrotreating is used for
Answer
B. Removing sulphur and nitrogen from petroleum fractions
34
Which nuclear fuel is found abundantly in nature ?
Answer
A. Uranium
35
Which of the two nuclear fuels are produced artificially ? 236 235
Answer
D. 𝑃𝑢 239 and 𝑈
36
What is ocean thermal energy conversion ?
Answer
A. Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean waters
37
Which is the correct sequence in formation of coal ?
Answer
C. Wood→peat→lignite→bituminous coal
38
The increasing order of calorific value is
Answer
C. Wood, lignite, bituminous coal, anthracite coal
39
Select the incorrect statement regarding solar energy.
Answer
D. Solar photo voltaic cells provide continuous supply of electricity.
40
Which among the following is not a potential geothermal power station in India ?
Answer
B. Vizhinjam
41
Heat transfer by conduction occurs through a slab of thickness 10 cm having thermal conductivity 1 W/(m·K). If the area perpendicular to heat transfer is 1 m², the conduction resistance in the slab is
Answer
B. 0.1 K/W
42
For steady conduction heat transfer through a composite wall consisting of material A and material B, the total temperature drop is ΔT and total resistance to heat transfer is R. If individual temperature drops are ΔT_A and ΔT_B and resistances are R_A and R_B, respectively for material A and B, pick out the correct expression.
Answer
A. ΔT/R = ΔT_A/R_A = ΔT_B/R_B
43
A spherical container is provided with an insulation to reduce heat loss. On increasing the thickness of this insulation layer, heat loss
Answer
D. Depends on the critical thickness of insulation
44
Heat transfer apparatus are mostly (except cryogenic liquids) designed in such a way that the temperature drop in the film of boiling liquid is
Answer
C. Less than critical temperature drop
45
Inside and outside heat transfer coefficients for a fluid flowing through a tube are respectively 400 W/𝑚 2K and 100 W/𝑚 2K. If the tube material possesses very high thermal conductivity, overall heat transfer coefficient is
Answer
A. 80 W/𝑚 2K
46
Pick correct statement for flow over a flat plate.
Answer
C. For Prandtl number < 1, thermal boundary layer is thicker than hydrodynamic boundary layer
47
Use of baffles in shell and tube heat exchangers results in
Answer
A. Increase in flow path and velocity of shell fluid
48
When thick liquor is highly viscous, which of the following feeding methods is preferred ?
Answer
B. Backward feed
49
Steam consumption in an evaporator is given by
Answer
B. Capacity/Economy
50
Compared to single effect evaporator, for multiple effect evaporators
Answer
C. Economy increases and capacity reduces
51
Absorption factor is
Answer
B. Ratio of slope of operating line to that of equilibrium line
52
Fick's first law of diffusion is
Answer
D. 𝐽� = − 𝐷�� 𝑑𝐶� 𝑑𝑧
53
As temperature increases, equilibrium solubility of a gas in a liquid during absorption
Answer
B. decreases
54
Total reflux condition used in a distillation column leads to
Answer
C. Minimum number of stages
55
In extractive distillation, the solvent added
Answer
A. Alter relative volatility of the mixture
56
Raoult's law and Henry's law are used to get equilibrium data for
Answer
C. Ideal solutions and dilute non-ideal solutions respectively
57
In an air-water vapour mixture, if PS and RS represent percent saturation and relative saturation respectively, which of the following is correct ?
Answer
D. PS < RS
58
Which of the following is not a desirable property for a good leaching solvent ?
Answer
A. High vapour pressure
59
The cooling tower preferred in applications with large cooling duties is
Answer
D. Natural draft tower
60
Rate controlling mechanism during constant-rate period in drying of a material is
Answer
A. External mass transfer between the material surface and bulk gas
61
Which of the following is/are correct about soap manufacturing ? i. The kettle process is much better than the Sharples process ii. The spent lye is repeatedly recycled in four state operations in the Sharples process iii. Steam consumption per kg of fat is high in the kettle process iv. All the stages of the kettle process are carried out in automatically controlled separate units.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
62
Match the following columns of I and II about the paper and pulp manufacturing industry. I II P. Sulfate pulp 1. Kraft Q. Sulfite pulp 2. Magnifite 3. Brown color pulp 4. Bamboo and Hardwood preferable
Answer
A. P-1, P-3, Q-4
63
Which of the following is not a raw material for soap manufacture ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
For Sulphuric acid manufacture by contact process which of the following sequence is followed ?
Answer
B. Furnance → Converter → Absorber
65
Match the following columns of raw material with their respective manufacturing process. P. Soda ash 1. Chamber process Q. Caustic soda 2. Wet process R. Phosphoric acid 3. Diaphragm process S. Sulphuric acid 4. Solvay process
Answer
D. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
66
Which of the following is a detergent ?
Answer
C. Alkyl benzene sulphonate
67
Which of the following process contributes to the major percentage of caustic soda production ?
Answer
C. Membrane process
68
Match the following classification of water treatment methods in column I with column II. I II P. Temporary hardness 1. Activated carbon Q. Permanent hardness 2. Zeolite softening R. Deodorization 3. Ca, Mg bicarbonates S. Ion exchange 4. Ca, Mg Sulfates or Chlorides
Answer
A. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
69
The presence of _________ increases the brilliancy and strength of optical glass and ________ imparts high density and high refracting power.
Answer
B. Barium compounds and red lead oxide
70
Match the following drugs in Column I with their raw material in Column II. I II P. Parathion 1. Sodium hydroxide Q. DDT 2. Methanol 3. Ethanol 4. Divinyl benzene
Answer
A. P-1, Q-3
71
In the manufacture of soda ash by Solvay process, the cost of product ________ as the tower height ________ and ________ with __________ in NaCl losses.
Answer
B. increases, increases, decreases, decreases
72
Which one of following processes used in the production of caustic soda ?
Answer
C. Brine purifier → diaphragm cell → multistage evaporator
73
Which one of the following process sequences is used in the sugar industry ?
Answer
B. 𝐶𝑎2 𝐻𝑃𝑂4 /Lime treatment → Multiple stage evaporation → Crystallization
74
Match the following classification of refractories in Column I with their raw materials in Column II. I II P. Acidic 1. Carbon graphite, chromite Q. Neutral 2. Alumina, Silica R. Basic 3. Magnesite, dolomite 4. Copper, silicone
Answer
B. P-2, Q-1, R-3
75
Which of the following are post Taning operations ?
Answer
C. Shaving, Splitting
76
State whether the following statements about fermentation are not correct. I. Fermentation is the only process for synthesizing some complex compounds. II. Unwanted components cannot be removed from the process. III. It works under high drastic and economic conditions compared to chemical process.
Answer
B. Only II and III
77
Match the process in group I with the catalyst used in group II. Group I Group II P. Sulphuric acid manufacture 1. Platinum Q. Vegetable oil hydrogenation 2. Vanadium pentoxide 3. Iron 4. Raney nickel
Answer
B. P-2, Q-4
78
Multiple effect evaporators are commonly used in the manufacture of P. Paper Q. Superphosphate R. Sugar S. Fats
Answer
B. P and R
79
Pair the following reactors with their products. P. Regenerator - tank furnace 1. Citric acid Q. Fermenter 2. Pulp and paper R. Continuous digester 3. Glass
Answer
D. P-3, Q-1, R-2
80
In Kraft pulping, fibrous material is cooked in the solution of
Answer
B. Sodium hydroxide and sodium sulfate
81
The time constant of a first order system with resistance R and capacitance C is
Answer
A. RC
82
When a bare thermocouple is covered by a protective sheath, the response becomes
Answer
C. Slower and non-oscillatory
83
The closed loop poles of a stable second order system could be
Answer
B. Real and negative
84
If the atmospheric temperature increases at constant absolute humidity, the relative humidity would
Answer
B. decrease
85
In a process of heating of air at constant pressure, the dry bulb temperature of inlet and outlet air are 35°C and 75°C respectively. The inlet air has a wet bulb temperature of 28°C and a humidity of 28%. Comment on the dew point temperature of inlet air.
Answer
D. Less than 28°C
86
The basic working principle of a pressure gauge is
Answer
B. Hooke's law
87
The monomeric units of Nylon 66 are
Answer
A. Hexamethylenediamine and Adipic acid
88
Which among the following is thermosetting plastic ?
Answer
D. All of the above
89
Thermocol is produced from
Answer
B. Polystyrene
90
Polymers produced by using single type of monomer
Answer
A. Homopolymer
91
Under constant drying conditions, when drying takes place from all surfaces, during constant rate period, the rate of drying is
Answer
B. Independent of solid thickness
92
Production mechanism of copolymers
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
93
Adhesives used for constructions
Answer
D. All of the above
94
What is Heinrich ratio which relates the number of near miss incidents and minor injuries to a major injury ?
Answer
C. 300:29:1
95
Bhopal Gas Tragedy happened on ��
Answer
A. 2 December 1984 ��
96
Least effective control in safety hierarchy
Answer
A. PPE
97
The limit of dissolved oxygen in water for the survival of aquatic plants and animals.
Answer
B. 5 mg/l
98
Accident incident theory is proposed by
Answer
C. Peterson
99
The principle of Electrostatic precipitator
Answer
A. Corona discharge
100
Gas chromatography is used for the measurement of
Answer
D. Concentration

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